Digital SAT · Reading & Writing · Exam Prep · NYC Test Prep
Digital SAT Practice Test 7 — Module 1 Reading & Writing: Full Walkthrough of All 33 Questions with Answers & Explanations
Every question on Digital SAT Practice Test #7, Reading & Writing Module 1, transcribed verbatim, with the official College Board answer key, a plain-English explanation for every choice, theory refreshers on every tested skill, and a free PDF download. Built by SOMATH, the math school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan.
Looking for the answers, explanations, and full walkthrough of Digital SAT Practice Test 7 — Reading & Writing Module 1? You are in the right place. This is a complete, question-by-question walkthrough of SAT Test #7, R&W Module 1 — every one of the 33 questions transcribed verbatim (passages, prompts, and all four answer choices), with the official College Board answer for each item and a plain-English explanation showing exactly why the correct choice works and why each distractor fails. Theory refreshers on every skill category are included, plus a free PDF download of the entire practice test for offline studying.
Module 1 is the first Reading & Writing module on the Digital SAT. Your performance on Module 1 helps determine which version of Module 2 you receive, so drilling it question by question, skill by skill, is one of the fastest ways to raise your composite score.
Whether you are a student prepping for the next SAT test date, a parent looking for answer explanations, or a teacher building a review packet, this walkthrough is designed to be a complete, honest, and student-friendly Digital SAT Reading & Writing resource. Written by the same team that teaches Digital SAT prep at SOMATH, a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of New York City run by Northwestern-trained cofounder Marcelo Ambrozio and Harvard-trained cofounder Vivianne Wright.
Answer key at a glance
All 33 answers in one table for quick review:
| Question # | Correct Answer |
|---|---|
| 1 | A |
| 2 | D |
| 3 | B |
| 4 | B |
| 5 | A |
| 6 | A |
| 7 | A |
| 8 | C |
| 9 | A |
| 10 | A |
| 11 | D |
| 12 | D |
| 13 | A |
| 14 | B |
| 15 | A |
| 16 | B |
| 17 | C |
| 18 | D |
| 19 | A |
| 20 | D |
| 21 | D |
| 22 | C |
| 23 | C |
| 24 | A |
| 25 | D |
| 26 | D |
| 27 | A |
| 28 | D |
| 29 | A |
| 30 | C |
| 31 | B |
| 32 | C |
| 33 | D |
Sections
Theory refresher · What R&W Module 1 tests
The Digital SAT Reading & Writing section has two timed modules. Every question is a short, self-contained passage followed by one question and four answer choices — there are no multi-question passage sets. The four content domains are:
1 · Craft & Structure
Words in Context. Pick the word or phrase that most precisely fits the logic and grammar of the sentence. Text Structure & Purpose. Identify how a text or sentence functions in the passage. Cross-Text Connections. Determine how the author or idea in one text would respond to another text’s claim.
2 · Information & Ideas
Central Ideas & Details. Identify the main point supported by the whole text. Command of Evidence (Textual). Select the evidence that best supports a stated claim. Command of Evidence (Quantitative). Read a table or graph accurately and choose the statement the data support. Inferences. Draw only the conclusion logically supported by the information given.
3 · Standard English Conventions
Boundaries. Choose correct punctuation between and within sentences. Form, Structure & Sense. Apply grammar and usage: agreement, verb forms, modifiers, and sentence structure.
4 · Expression of Ideas
Transitions. Select the connector that accurately signals contrast, cause and effect, addition, sequence, or substitution. Rhetorical Synthesis. Use only the relevant notes to accomplish the exact stated goal, such as emphasizing a similarity, an achievement, or a generalization.
Every question below is transcribed verbatim from College Board’s Practice Test 7 booklet. Try each one on your own, then click Show answer & explanation to see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every choice.
Section 1 · Craft & Structure
Words in Context and Text Structure & Purpose — the questions that open the module.
Question 1 · Words in Context
On the basis of extensive calculations and models, astronomers in the 1990s predicted that the collision of two neutron stars or a neutron star and a black hole could release a massive burst of gamma rays in an event called a kilonova. This _______ was confirmed with observations in 2017.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) theory
- B) evidence
- C) constant
- D) experiment
Answer: A) theory
One-line summary: The prediction is a scientific explanation later confirmed by observation.
✓ A) theory
The word names a supported explanation, which is what the calculations and models produced.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) evidence — Evidence would be proof, not the prediction itself; constant means unchanging; experiment is a test, not an idea.
✗ C) constant — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) experiment — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 2 · Words in Context
The following text is from John Muir’s 1913 autobiography The Story of My Boyhood and Youth. Muir describes being on a boat.
The water was so clear that it was almost invisible, and when we floated slowly out over the plants and fishes, we seemed to be miraculously sustained in the air while exploring a veritable fairyland.
As used in the text, what does the word “clear” most nearly mean?
- A) Simple
- B) Understandable
- C) Obvious
- D) Transparent
Answer: D) Transparent
One-line summary: The description makes the water nearly invisible because it is transparent.
✓ D) Transparent
Transparent means see-through, matching the ability to view plants and fishes below.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) Simple — Simple and understandable do not describe water here; obvious conflicts with ‘almost invisible.’
✗ B) Understandable — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) Obvious — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 3 · Words in Context
At the turn of the twentieth century, Black residents of Richmond, Virginia, had few formal options for banking and other financial services. To _______ this situation, Maggie Lena Walker chartered the St. Luke Penny Savings Bank in 1903. The bank went on to provide home loans and savings opportunities to thousands of Black families over the following decades.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) prolong
- B) rectify
- C) retain
- D) highlight
Answer: B) rectify
One-line summary: Walker’s bank corrected the shortage of financial services.
✓ B) rectify
Rectify means remedy an undesirable condition, exactly what the new bank did.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) prolong — Prolong and retain would preserve the problem; highlight would merely call attention to it.
✗ C) retain — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) highlight — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 4 · Words in Context
The results of randomized clinical trials testing the efficacy of common medical interventions sometimes fail to _______ conclusions that practitioners reach based on their real-world observations of patients. While there are several possible reasons for this, one is that practitioners may overlook confounding variables that account for the results they attribute to the interventions in question.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) circumvent
- B) corroborate
- C) disseminate
- D) implement
Answer: B) corroborate
One-line summary: Trials may not confirm practitioners’ real-world conclusions when confounding variables are missed.
✓ B) corroborate
Corroborate means support or confirm, the relationship the sentence describes.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) circumvent — Results cannot bypass, spread, or put conclusions into effect; those verbs do not fit the relationship.
✗ C) disseminate — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) implement — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 5 · Words in Context
Diadromous fish migrate between freshwater and marine biomes during their life cycle. The migration’s obligate nature is why diadromous fish can be _______ those that are merely euryhaline (able to tolerate high salinity): the euryhaline blackchin tilapia can survive high salinity, but its life cycle does not involve relocation to a different biome, as does that of the diadromous wild salmon.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) demarcated from
- B) reconstituted as
- C) conflated with
- D) derived from
Answer: A) demarcated from
One-line summary: Different migration patterns set diadromous fish apart from euryhaline fish.
✓ A) demarcated from
Demarcated from means distinguished or separated from, as the contrast in life cycles shows.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) reconstituted as — The fish are not remade, combined, or descended from the euryhaline fish.
✗ C) conflated with — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) derived from — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 6 · Text Structure & Purpose
The following text is from Joan Didion’s memoir The Year of Magical Thinking. In the text, the author discusses her home life.
[I]n California we heated our houses by building fires. We built fires even on summer evenings, because the fog came in. Fires said we were home, we had drawn the circle, we were safe through the night. ©2005 by Joan Didion
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
- A) It illustrates that a fire provides comfort beyond physical warmth.
- B) It summarizes the information that came before it in the text.
- C) It explains that the house remains cold even in summer.
- D) It suggests that the author feels comfortable in her home with or without a fire.
Answer: A) It illustrates that a fire provides comfort beyond physical warmth.
One-line summary: The underlined words make fire a symbol of safety and belonging, not just warmth.
✓ A) It illustrates that a fire provides comfort beyond physical warmth.
They show the emotional comfort a fire provides: home, a protective circle, and safety overnight.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) It summarizes the information that came before it in the text. — They do not summarize prior details, say the house stays cold, or suggest comfort without a fire.
✗ C) It explains that the house remains cold even in summer. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) It suggests that the author feels comfortable in her home with or without a fire. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 7 · Text Structure & Purpose
The majority of plastics today wind up in landfills or are, at best, recycled into materials that have a very limited range of applications. To address this problem, chemist Guoliang Liu and colleagues designed a reactor that melts polyethylene and polypropylene—two widely used plastics—into a wax. The wax can then be transformed into a surfactant (a chemical compound usable as a detergent). With this promising new method, plastic waste could be turned into a range of useful cleaning products.
Which choice best states the function of the underlined portion of the text?
- A) It clarifies the meaning of a scientific term.
- B) It describes an environmental concern.
- C) It explains the significance of a scientific discovery.
- D) It identifies a result that confused the team.
Answer: A) It clarifies the meaning of a scientific term.
One-line summary: The parenthetical gives a plain definition of ‘surfactant.’
✓ A) It clarifies the meaning of a scientific term.
It tells readers that a surfactant is a chemical compound usable as a detergent.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) It describes an environmental concern. — It does not describe the environmental problem, explain the discovery’s significance, or mention confusion.
✗ C) It explains the significance of a scientific discovery. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) It identifies a result that confused the team. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 8 · Text Structure & Purpose
The following text is from H.D.’s 1916 poem “Mid-Day.” In the poem, the speaker is on a path in an outdoor setting.
A slight wind shakes the seed-pods—
my thoughts are spent
as the black seeds.
My thoughts tear me,
I dread their fever.
I am scattered in its whirl.
I am scattered like
the hot shrivelled seeds.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
- A) It illustrates a change in the natural environment that the speaker implies is responsible for the growing misgivings described in the text.
- B) It establishes an example of consistency in the natural landscape that the speaker then contrasts with the unpredictability of human emotions.
- C) It presents an observation of an occurrence in the natural world that the speaker then expands on to convey a sense of a turbulent interior state.
- D) It evokes the ordinariness of an event in nature to suggest that the critical self-evaluation the speaker engages in is a common pursuit.
Answer: C) It presents an observation of an occurrence in the natural world that the speaker then expands on to convey a sense of a turbulent interior state.
One-line summary: The seedpods’ motion becomes an image for the speaker’s unsettled mind.
✓ C) It presents an observation of an occurrence in the natural world that the speaker then expands on to convey a sense of a turbulent interior state.
The natural observation is developed through comparisons to scattered, fevered thoughts.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) It illustrates a change in the natural environment that the speaker implies is responsible for the growing misgivings described in the text. — The wind is not said to cause the feelings; there is no stable landscape contrast or habitual self-critique.
✗ B) It establishes an example of consistency in the natural landscape that the speaker then contrasts with the unpredictability of human emotions. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) It evokes the ordinariness of an event in nature to suggest that the critical self-evaluation the speaker engages in is a common pursuit. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 9 · Text Structure & Purpose
In 2023 literary scholar Jeremy Douglass cautioned technology investors and enthusiasts who predict conventional books’ ultimate displacement by newer forms of media. Douglass observed that the concept of an “interactive” text is much older than technologists assume, extending back to the first time readers scratched notes into a text’s margins. In addition, newer media, such as video games, haven’t replaced older forms of entertainment, such as comic books, but rather exist alongside them. Douglass believes that rather than supplanting books, technology is simply making new forms of expression possible.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
- A) It challenges the stance of the investors and enthusiasts who are mentioned earlier in the text.
- B) It explains the basis for the claim made by the technologists mentioned in the text.
- C) It suggests that academics are better suited than investors to see the potential uses of contemporary interactive texts.
- D) It provides a historical anecdote about the technological challenges involved in reading the earliest interactive texts.
Answer: A) It challenges the stance of the investors and enthusiasts who are mentioned earlier in the text.
One-line summary: The underlined observation pushes back against the prediction that new media will replace books.
✓ A) It challenges the stance of the investors and enthusiasts who are mentioned earlier in the text.
By showing that interactive texts have existed since marginal notes, it challenges the investors’ assumption.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) It explains the basis for the claim made by the technologists mentioned in the text. — It neither supports their claim, compares academics and investors, nor discusses reading technology problems.
✗ C) It suggests that academics are better suited than investors to see the potential uses of contemporary interactive texts. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) It provides a historical anecdote about the technological challenges involved in reading the earliest interactive texts. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Section 2 · Information & Ideas
Central Ideas & Details, Command of Evidence, and Inferences.
Question 10 · Central Ideas & Details
In 2018, scientists discovered an immense aggregation of Muusoctopus robustus (pearl octopuses) along a hydrothermal vent 3,200 meters beneath the ocean’s surface. Water temperatures at this site—named the Octopus Garden—climb as high as 11°C , much warmer than the ambient 1.6°C typical at this depth. Based on observations made over three years, scientists concluded that temperatures at the site likely confer reproductive benefits and that the site is used exclusively for reproduction—6,000 M. robustus adults, hatchlings, and eggs were observed at the garden, but no juveniles were present.
Which statement about M. robustus and the Octopus Garden is best supported by the text?
- A) M. robustus leave the Octopus Garden upon reaching an intermediary stage of development.
- B) The M. robustus population at the Octopus Garden remains stable despite variations in water temperature.
- C) M. robustus nests in the Octopus Garden contain on average fewer but larger eggs than nests at similar ocean depths.
- D) The Octopus Garden provides an ideal feeding ground for M. robustus hatchlings.
Answer: A) M. robustus leave the Octopus Garden upon reaching an intermediary stage of development.
One-line summary: Adults, eggs, and hatchlings—but no juveniles—imply that octopuses leave at an intermediate stage.
✓ A) M. robustus leave the Octopus Garden upon reaching an intermediary stage of development.
That inference explains why the reproduction-only site contains no juveniles.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) The M. robustus population at the Octopus Garden remains stable despite variations in water temperature. — The text gives no population stability, egg-size comparison, or feeding-ground evidence.
✗ C) M. robustus nests in the Octopus Garden contain on average fewer but larger eggs than nests at similar ocean depths. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) The Octopus Garden provides an ideal feeding ground for M. robustus hatchlings. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 11 · Inferences
The following text is from Thomas Mann’s 1924 novel The Magic Mountain, translated by John E. Woods in 1995.
The story of Hans Castorp that we intend to tell here—not for his sake (for the reader will come to know him as a perfectly ordinary, if engaging young man), but for the sake of the story itself, which seems to us to be very much worth telling (although in Hans Castorp’s favor it should be noted that it is his story, and that not every story happens to everybody)—is a story that took place long ago, and is, so to speak, covered with the patina of history and must necessarily be told with verbs whose tense is that of the deepest past. ©1995 by Alfred A. Knopf, Inc.
What does the text most strongly suggest about the story of Hans Castorp?
- A) Though it is true that stories of even the most uninteresting people are themselves interesting because all people are unique, the reason this story is interesting is nonetheless difficult to understand because of the passage of time.
- B) Even though it is a story of a person of no particular importance, its age and the manner in which it therefore must be told are both indicators that the story itself is important.
- C) Like all stories about the lives of inconsequential people, this story must necessarily be related in a particular way if the reason the story is consequential is to be made evident to the audience.
- D) It is a remarkable story that happened to an unremarkable person, though one could plausibly argue that because the story is valuable, some of its value accrues to the person at its center.
Answer: D) It is a remarkable story that happened to an unremarkable person, though one could plausibly argue that because the story is valuable, some of its value accrues to the person at its center.
One-line summary: The narrator calls Hans ordinary while treating his story as extraordinary and valuable.
✓ D) It is a remarkable story that happened to an unremarkable person, though one could plausibly argue that because the story is valuable, some of its value accrues to the person at its center.
This choice preserves both ideas and the suggestion that the story’s value reflects somewhat on Hans.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) Though it is true that stories of even the most uninteresting people are themselves interesting because all people are unique, the reason this story is interesting is nonetheless difficult to understand because of the passage of time. — The others add claims about all people, age proving importance, or a required storytelling method that the text never makes.
✗ B) Even though it is a story of a person of no particular importance, its age and the manner in which it therefore must be told are both indicators that the story itself is important. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) Like all stories about the lives of inconsequential people, this story must necessarily be related in a particular way if the reason the story is consequential is to be made evident to the audience. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 12 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
Graph: Percentage of Participants Who Mentioned Factors
| Factor | Participants |
|---|---|
| Costs | About 50% |
According to the graph, about what percentage of participants mentioned costs in the interviews?
- A) 10%
- B) 95%
- C) 25%
- D) 50%
Answer: D) 50%
One-line summary: The graph places costs at about half of the respondents.
✓ D) 50%
The costs bar is approximately 50%, so this is the graph-supported estimate.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) 10% — The 10%, 95%, and 25% figures do not match the costs bar.
✗ B) 95% — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) 25% — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 13 · Command of Evidence (Textual)
A student in a political science course is writing a paper on Aristotle’s The Politics, in which Aristotle offers his opinion on political instability and gives advice on how constitutions can be preserved. Aristotle observes that different forms of government can fall in different ways—for example, oligarchies might grant power to military leaders during wartime who refuse to relinquish that power during peacetime—but some methods of preserving order apply across all forms of government. The student claims that in particular Aristotle asserts that in a healthy state obedience to law must be as close to absolute as possible and that even minor infractions should not be ignored.
Which quotation from a philosopher’s analysis of The Politics would best support the student’s claim?
- A) “When constructing his argument regarding the characteristics of a well-functioning government, Aristotle asserts that ‘Transgression creeps in unperceived and at last ruins the state,’ illustrating this idea with a comparison to frequent small expenditures slowly and almost imperceptibly chipping away at a fortune until it is ultimately depleted.”
- B) “When Aristotle writes on the necessity of avoiding corruption in government, he proposes that ‘every state should be so administered and so regulated by law that its magistrates cannot possibly make money.’ In particular, he thinks oligarchies are particularly susceptible to corruption through bribery.”
- C) “When Aristotle considers the health of constitutions, he states that ‘Constitutions are preserved when their destroyers are at a distance, and sometimes also because they are near, for the fear of them makes the government keep in hand the constitution.’ He holds that rulers who wish to see constitutions preserved must continually remind the populace of the dangers that would result from a constitutional collapse.”
- D) “When contrasting different forms of government, Aristotle holds that ‘oligarchies may last, not from any inherent stability in such forms of government, but because the rulers are on good terms both with the unenfranchised and with the governing classes.’ That is, oligarchic leaders who wish to hold on to power will introduce members of disenfranchised classes into government in a participatory role.”
Answer: A) “When constructing his argument regarding the characteristics of a well-functioning government, Aristotle asserts that ‘Transgression creeps in unperceived and at last ruins the state,’ illustrating this idea with a comparison to frequent small expenditures slowly and almost imperceptibly chipping away at a fortune until it is ultimately depleted.”
One-line summary: The best quotation says unnoticed small violations can eventually ruin a state.
✓ A) “When constructing his argument regarding the characteristics of a well-functioning government, Aristotle asserts that ‘Transgression creeps in unperceived and at last ruins the state,’ illustrating this idea with a comparison to frequent small expenditures slowly and almost imperceptibly chipping away at a fortune until it is ultimately depleted.”
It directly supports strict obedience to law and attention even to minor infractions.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) “When Aristotle writes on the necessity of avoiding corruption in government, he proposes that ‘every state should be so administered and so regulated by law that its magistrates cannot possibly make money.’ In particular, he thinks oligarchies are particularly susceptible to corruption through bribery.” — The others focus on bribery, external threats, or oligarchic coalition-building rather than small violations of law.
✗ C) “When Aristotle considers the health of constitutions, he states that ‘Constitutions are preserved when their destroyers are at a distance, and sometimes also because they are near, for the fear of them makes the government keep in hand the constitution.’ He holds that rulers who wish to see constitutions preserved must continually remind the populace of the dangers that would result from a constitutional collapse.” — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) “When contrasting different forms of government, Aristotle holds that ‘oligarchies may last, not from any inherent stability in such forms of government, but because the rulers are on good terms both with the unenfranchised and with the governing classes.’ That is, oligarchic leaders who wish to hold on to power will introduce members of disenfranchised classes into government in a participatory role.” — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 14 · Command of Evidence (Textual)
Almost all works of fiction contain references to the progression of time, including the time of day when events in a story take place. In a 2020 study, Allen Kim, Charuta Pethe, and Steven Skiena claim that an observable pattern in such references reflects a shift in human behavior prompted by the spread of electric lighting in the late nineteenth century. The researchers drew this conclusion from an analysis of more than 50,000 novels spanning many centuries and cultures, using software to recognize and tally both specific time references—that is, clock phrases, such as 7 a.m. or 2:30 p.m.—and implied ones, such as mentions of meals typically associated with a particular time of day.
Which finding from the study, if true, would most directly support the researchers’ conclusion?
- A) Novels published after the year 1800 include the clock phrase 10 a.m. less often than novels published before the year 1800 do.
- B) Novels published after 1880 contain significantly more references to activities occurring after 10 p.m. than do novels from earlier periods.
- C) Among novels published in the nineteenth century, implied time references become steadily more common than clock phrases as publication dates approach 1900.
- D) The time references of noon (12 p.m.) and midnight (12 a.m.) are used with roughly the same frequency in the novels. □ urban population growth ■ GDP per capita growth
Answer: B) Novels published after 1880 contain significantly more references to activities occurring after 10 p.m. than do novels from earlier periods.
One-line summary: More late-night activity after electric lighting spread would show the proposed behavior shift.
✓ B) Novels published after 1880 contain significantly more references to activities occurring after 10 p.m. than do novels from earlier periods.
A rise in post-10 p.m. references after 1880 connects late activity to easier nighttime illumination.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) Novels published after the year 1800 include the clock phrase 10 a.m. less often than novels published before the year 1800 do. — The other findings concern morning time, wording trends, or equal noon/midnight use and do not establish that link.
✗ C) Among novels published in the nineteenth century, implied time references become steadily more common than clock phrases as publication dates approach 1900. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) The time references of noon (12 p.m.) and midnight (12 a.m.) are used with roughly the same frequency in the novels. □ urban population growth ■ GDP per capita growth — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 15 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
Graph: Percentage of ULE Attributed to Population Growth and GDP per Capita Growth in Two World Regions
| Region 1 period | Population growth | GDP per capita growth |
|---|---|---|
| 1970–2000 | about 62% | about 38% |
| 2000–2014 | about 74% | about 26% |
Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the statement?
- A) national governments of countries in Region 1 experienced declines in efficiency in the period from 2000 to 2014, relative to the period from 1970 to 2000.
- B) countries in Region 1 experienced a slower rate of economic growth in the period from 2000 to 2014 than countries in Region 2 did, despite increasing national government efficiency in Region 1.
- C) national governments of most countries in Region 2 became more efficient in the period from 2000 to 2014 than they had been in the period from 1970 to 2000, but those of several countries in this region did not.
- D) national governments of countries in Region 1 and in Region 2 generally became more efficient in the period from 2000 to 2014 than they had been in the period from 1970 to 2000, but at different rates.
Answer: A) national governments of countries in Region 1 experienced declines in efficiency in the period from 2000 to 2014, relative to the period from 1970 to 2000.
One-line summary: Region 1’s shift away from GDP-per-capita influence implies less efficient government under the stated hypothesis.
✓ A) national governments of countries in Region 1 experienced declines in efficiency in the period from 2000 to 2014, relative to the period from 1970 to 2000.
The graph shows population growth accounting for more ULE and GDP-per-capita growth for less in Region 1.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) countries in Region 1 experienced a slower rate of economic growth in the period from 2000 to 2014 than countries in Region 2 did, despite increasing national government efficiency in Region 1. — The graph does not compare economic growth rates, identify exceptions by country, or show both regions becoming more efficient.
✗ C) national governments of most countries in Region 2 became more efficient in the period from 2000 to 2014 than they had been in the period from 1970 to 2000, but those of several countries in this region did not. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) national governments of countries in Region 1 and in Region 2 generally became more efficient in the period from 2000 to 2014 than they had been in the period from 1970 to 2000, but at different rates. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 16 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
Graph: China’s Imports by Type, 2000–2006
| Import type | 2000 | 2006 |
|---|---|---|
| Processing with assembly | about 250 | about 750 |
| Processing with inputs | about 650 | about 2,300 |
Which choice best describes data from the graph that support the student’s assertion?
- A) Processing imports with inputs were greater than both ordinary imports and processing imports with assembly in 2006.
- B) From 2000 to 2006, processing imports with inputs rose much more sharply than processing imports with assembly did.
- C) From 2000 to 2006, neither processing imports with inputs nor processing imports with assembly were greater than ordinary imports.
- D) Processing imports with assembly were greater in 2006 than processing imports with inputs in 2000.
Answer: B) From 2000 to 2006, processing imports with inputs rose much more sharply than processing imports with assembly did.
One-line summary: A sharp rise in processing with inputs indicates that firms increasingly had capital to buy raw materials.
✓ B) From 2000 to 2006, processing imports with inputs rose much more sharply than processing imports with assembly did.
Processing with inputs rose far more than processing with assembly from 2000 to 2006.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) Processing imports with inputs were greater than both ordinary imports and processing imports with assembly in 2006. — The other descriptions do not establish the needed change from limited to greater capital.
✗ C) From 2000 to 2006, neither processing imports with inputs nor processing imports with assembly were greater than ordinary imports. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) Processing imports with assembly were greater in 2006 than processing imports with inputs in 2000. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 17 · Inferences
Narwhals are shy whales that live in the remote Arctic Ocean. Some of them have a long tusk, like a unicorn horn, with sensitive nerves. Narwhals are known for this tusk, but many actually don’t have one and its purpose is unknown. One group of scientists came up with a possible purpose in 2014. The scientists suggested that the tusk may help narwhals determine when water around them is likely to start freezing and become dangerous for them. Marine biologist Kristin Laidre disagrees with that idea, though. She reasons that if the narwhal’s tusk serves such an important purpose, then it’s most likely that _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) some narwhals would seek a new habitat.
- B) fewer marine animals would also have tusks.
- C) more narwhals would have a tusk.
- D) narwhals would become less shy over time.
Answer: C) more narwhals would have a tusk.
One-line summary: If the tusk were essential for avoiding freezing water, it would be more common among narwhals.
✓ C) more narwhals would have a tusk.
A vital survival feature would be expected in more members of the species.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) some narwhals would seek a new habitat. — Changing habitat, other animals’ tusks, and shyness do not test the proposed function.
✗ B) fewer marine animals would also have tusks. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) narwhals would become less shy over time. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 18 · Inferences
To address the susceptibility of materials used in components of high-performance machinery, such as aircraft engines, to creep (deformation that is induced by persistent mechanical stress and that often occurs at elevated temperatures), materials researchers have developed silicon carbide (SiC) fibers for producing aerospace composites. Testing the thermomechanical properties of several commercially available SiC fibers, Ramakrishna T. Bhatt et al. found that in comparison with two polymer-derived SiC fibers, a nitrogen-treated SiC fiber exhibited a lower minimum creep rate, a measure of the rate at which a stress-exposed material deforms at a constant temperature and uniaxial load. The finding suggests that _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) unlike the two polymer-derived SiC fibers, the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber can substantially inhibit creep, provided that temperatures and loads are consistent.
- B) the two polymer-derived SiC fibers likely hold similar potential for reducing the creep resistance of materials exposed to stress and elevated temperatures, thus prolonging the life span of aerospace machinery.
- C) composites based on the two polymer-derived SiC fibers have chemical properties that may improve the mechanical and thermal stability of aerospace equipment to a greater extent than do composites based on the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber.
- D) aerospace composites containing the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber may have the ability to withstand mechanical stress for a longer period of time than can aerospace composites containing either of the two polymer-derived SiC fibers.
Answer: D) aerospace composites containing the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber may have the ability to withstand mechanical stress for a longer period of time than can aerospace composites containing either of the two polymer-derived SiC fibers.
One-line summary: A lower creep rate means the nitrogen-treated fiber deforms more slowly under stress.
✓ D) aerospace composites containing the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber may have the ability to withstand mechanical stress for a longer period of time than can aerospace composites containing either of the two polymer-derived SiC fibers.
That supports composites with this fiber lasting longer under mechanical stress.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) unlike the two polymer-derived SiC fibers, the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber can substantially inhibit creep, provided that temperatures and loads are consistent. — It does not prove total inhibition, similarity of the two other fibers, or superior chemical properties.
✗ B) the two polymer-derived SiC fibers likely hold similar potential for reducing the creep resistance of materials exposed to stress and elevated temperatures, thus prolonging the life span of aerospace machinery. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) composites based on the two polymer-derived SiC fibers have chemical properties that may improve the mechanical and thermal stability of aerospace equipment to a greater extent than do composites based on the nitrogen-treated SiC fiber. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Section 3 · Standard English Conventions
Form, Structure & Sense and Boundaries questions.
Question 19 · Form, Structure & Sense
One of the earliest known maps is a Babylonian clay tablet thought to be almost 4,500 years old. The map _______ the area of a plot of land, shows a river valley, and includes the cardinal directions.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) describes
- B) describe
- C) have described
- D) are describing
Answer: A) describes
One-line summary: The singular subject ‘map’ requires a singular present-tense verb.
✓ A) describes
‘Describes’ agrees with the singular noun ‘map.’
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) describe — The other choices use plural or mismatched tense forms.
✗ C) have described — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) are describing — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 20 · Form, Structure & Sense
Eighteen letters written by Louisa May Alcott, author of the popular novel Little Women (1868), can be found at the New York Historical Society. _______ letters demonstrate Alcott’s keen business sense in her interactions with publishers.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) One
- B) That
- C) This
- D) These
Answer: D) These
One-line summary: The sentence refers back to multiple letters.
✓ D) These
‘These’ is the plural determiner that agrees with ‘letters.’
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) One — One, that, and this are singular and do not match ‘letters.’
✗ B) That — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) This — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 21 · Form, Structure & Sense
The Dust Bowl was a period of severe drought that plagued the Great Plains of the US during the 1930s. During this time, dust storms _______ over 100 million acres of land. They even reached as far east as New York City.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) are affecting
- B) will have affected
- C) will affect
- D) affected
Answer: D) affected
One-line summary: The dust storms occurred during the 1930s, so past tense is required.
✓ D) affected
‘Affected’ correctly places the storms in that completed historical period.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) are affecting — The present-progressive and future forms place the action in the wrong time.
✗ B) will have affected — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) will affect — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 22 · Boundaries
Many mechanical calculators were powered by a notched cylinder mechanism called the Leibniz wheel. Leibniz wheel calculators were popular in the first half of the twentieth _______ these ingenious devices were eventually replaced by electronic calculators.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) century
- B) century,
- C) century, but
- D) century that
Answer: C) century, but
One-line summary: Two independent clauses need correct coordination.
✓ C) century, but
A comma plus ‘but’ joins the contrast between the calculators’ popularity and replacement.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) century — No punctuation creates a run-on, a comma alone creates a splice, and ‘that’ does not join the clauses logically.
✗ B) century, — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) century that — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 23 · Form, Structure & Sense
Featuring jagged peaks of black ink surrounded by hazy swirls of blue and green paint, Zhang Daqian’s 1983 painting Panorama of Mount Lu is inspired by the tradition of qinglü shanshui, a type of Chinese landscape painting _______ by the use of blue and green hues to depict ethereal, otherworldly landscapes.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) has been characterized
- B) will be characterized
- C) characterized
- D) is characterized
Answer: C) characterized
One-line summary: The phrase after ‘a type of Chinese landscape painting’ needs a participial modifier.
✓ C) characterized
‘Characterized’ modifies qinglü shanshui without creating a second independent clause.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) has been characterized — The finite verb choices create an improperly joined extra clause.
✗ B) will be characterized — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) is characterized — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 24 · Boundaries
Increasing the heat on an uncovered boiling pot of water does not increase the temperature of the water. What increases is the rate at which the water turns to _______ a pressure cooker pot, though, an airtight seal traps the vapor in the pot, creating pressure that allows the temperature of the water to increase past its boiling point.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) vapor. With
- B) vapor with
- C) vapor, with
- D) vapor and with
Answer: A) vapor. With
One-line summary: The completed idea about vapor must end before a new sentence beginning ‘With.’
✓ A) vapor. With
A period correctly separates the two independent statements.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) vapor with — No punctuation makes a run-on, a comma makes a splice, and ‘and’ is not correctly punctuated here.
✗ C) vapor, with — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) vapor and with — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 25 · Form, Structure & Sense
Wanting to celebrate the 100th anniversary of the Alaska Purchase, _______ up with a motto that best captured the state’s unique character. The commission selected “North to the Future,” submitted by Juneau journalist Richard Peter, as its winning entry.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) a contest sponsored by the Alaska Centennial Commission would award $300 to an individual who came
- B) an award of $300 would go to an individual in a contest sponsored by the Alaska Centennial Commission for coming
- C) $300 would be awarded to an individual by the Alaska Centennial Commission in a contest for coming
- D) the Alaska Centennial Commission sponsored a contest that would award $300 to an individual who came
Answer: D) the Alaska Centennial Commission sponsored a contest that would award $300 to an individual who came
One-line summary: The opening modifier must describe the Alaska Centennial Commission.
✓ D) the Alaska Centennial Commission sponsored a contest that would award $300 to an individual who came
The commission is placed immediately after ‘Wanting to celebrate,’ making the action logical.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) a contest sponsored by the Alaska Centennial Commission would award $300 to an individual who came — The other choices make a contest, an award, or money seem to have wanted to celebrate.
✗ B) an award of $300 would go to an individual in a contest sponsored by the Alaska Centennial Commission for coming — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) $300 would be awarded to an individual by the Alaska Centennial Commission in a contest for coming — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 26 · Boundaries
Recently unearthed Neronian tools in France dating to 54,000 years ago and attributed to Homo sapiens may provide evidence that interactions between Neanderthals and modern humans occurred 10,000 years earlier than was previously _______ finding that, if true, would overturn current theories about H. sapiens migration during the Upper Paleolithic.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) supposed; a
- B) supposed. A
- C) supposed a
- D) supposed, a
Answer: D) supposed, a
One-line summary: The final noun phrase is an added description of the preceding finding.
✓ D) supposed, a
A comma properly introduces ‘a finding that, if true,’ as supplementary information.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) supposed; a — A semicolon is not appropriate, a period makes a fragment, and no punctuation fuses the parts.
✗ B) supposed. A — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) supposed a — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Section 4 · Expression of Ideas
Transitions and Rhetorical Synthesis — the final stretch of the module.
Question 27 · Transitions
Guard cells are specialized cells that are part of a plant’s pores. These cells help regulate the amount of carbon dioxide a plant takes in. _______ they help regulate a plant’s water loss.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
- A) Additionally,
- B) Previously,
- C) In conclusion,
- D) Instead,
Answer: A) Additionally,
One-line summary: Regulating water loss is another function of guard cells.
✓ A) Additionally,
‘Additionally’ signals that the sentence adds a second role.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) Previously, — Previously signals time, in conclusion signals a summary, and instead signals replacement rather than addition.
✗ C) In conclusion, — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) Instead, — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 28 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: • Angana Chaudhuri is a scientist. • Chaudhuri studies sedimentary rocks.
- A scientist who studies sedimentary rocks is called a sedimentologist.
- Shale, chalk, and sandstone are examples of sedimentary rocks.
The student wants to identify what type of scientist Chaudhuri is. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) Chalk is a type of sedimentary rock.
- B) Some scientists study shale, chalk, and sandstone.
- C) There are scientists who study sedimentary rocks.
- D) Chaudhuri is a sedimentologist.
Answer: D) Chaudhuri is a sedimentologist.
One-line summary: The notes identify Chaudhuri’s specialty by linking her subject to the name of that specialty.
✓ D) Chaudhuri is a sedimentologist.
Because she studies sedimentary rocks, she is a sedimentologist.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) Chalk is a type of sedimentary rock. — The other choices give rock examples or generic statements without naming Chaudhuri’s type of scientist.
✗ B) Some scientists study shale, chalk, and sandstone. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) There are scientists who study sedimentary rocks. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 29 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: • “Raymond’s Run” is a short story. • It was written by African American author Toni Cade Bambara.
- It was first published in her book Gorilla, My Love in 1972.
- It is told from a first person perspective. • It takes place in Harlem.
The student wants to indicate where the short story takes place. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) “Raymond’s Run” takes place in Harlem.
- B) “Raymond’s Run” was published in Gorilla, My Love.
- C) “Raymond’s Run” is told from a first person perspective.
- D) “Raymond’s Run” was written by Toni Cade Bambara.
Answer: A) “Raymond’s Run” takes place in Harlem.
One-line summary: The goal is to say where the story occurs.
✓ A) “Raymond’s Run” takes place in Harlem.
This choice directly states that ‘Raymond’s Run’ takes place in Harlem.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ B) “Raymond’s Run” was published in Gorilla, My Love. — The remaining choices identify the book, narrative perspective, or author instead of the setting.
✗ C) “Raymond’s Run” is told from a first person perspective. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) “Raymond’s Run” was written by Toni Cade Bambara. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 30 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: • The Royal Alcázar of Seville is a historic royal palace in Andalucía, Spain.
on the ceramic tiles.
- The palace is famous for its intricate tilework.
- The palace features majolica and arista tiles.
- In the majolica style, designs are painted directly
- In the arista style, designs are stamped into the ceramic tiles.
The student wants to contrast the two styles of tiles. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) Tiles in the majolica and arista styles can be found in the Royal Alcázar of Seville in Andalucía, Spain.
- B) Featuring tiles in the majolica and arista styles, the Royal Alcázar of Seville in Spain is famous for its intricate tilework.
- C) In the arista style, designs are stamped into the ceramic tiles, whereas in the majolica style, the designs are painted directly on them.
- D) Among the famous tilework of the Royal Alcázar of Seville are majolica style tiles, made by painting designs directly on the ceramic tiles.
Answer: C) In the arista style, designs are stamped into the ceramic tiles, whereas in the majolica style, the designs are painted directly on them.
One-line summary: A contrast needs the different production methods for both tile styles.
✓ C) In the arista style, designs are stamped into the ceramic tiles, whereas in the majolica style, the designs are painted directly on them.
This choice sets stamped arista designs against directly painted majolica designs.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) Tiles in the majolica and arista styles can be found in the Royal Alcázar of Seville in Andalucía, Spain. — The others mention a shared location, shared presence, or only one style.
✗ B) Featuring tiles in the majolica and arista styles, the Royal Alcázar of Seville in Spain is famous for its intricate tilework. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) Among the famous tilework of the Royal Alcázar of Seville are majolica style tiles, made by painting designs directly on the ceramic tiles. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 31 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: • Musicians around the world have used protest songs to raise awareness about human rights violations.
protest song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” in 1932.
working conditions coal miners faced in Kentucky during the 1920s and 1930s.
- US folk singer Aunt Molly Jackson released the
- It exposed the unlivable wages and dangerous
- South African singer-songwriter Hugh Masekela released the protest song “Bring Him Back Home” in 1987.
- It called on the South African government to free Nelson Mandela, an anti-apartheid leader who’d been unjustly imprisoned.
The student wants to contrast the song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” with the song “Bring Him Back Home.” Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) The songs “Poor Miner’s Farewell” and “Bring Him Back Home” both raised awareness about human rights violations.
- B) While both are protest songs, “Poor Miner’s Farewell” is about coal miners in Kentucky, whereas “Bring Him Back Home” is about the anti-apartheid leader Nelson Mandela.
- C) Hugh Masekela’s song “Bring Him Back Home,” released in 1987, called on the South African government to free Nelson Mandela.
- D) Released in 1932 by Aunt Molly Jackson, the song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” was a protest against the unlivable wages and dangerous working conditions faced by Kentucky coal miners.
Answer: B) While both are protest songs, “Poor Miner’s Farewell” is about coal miners in Kentucky, whereas “Bring Him Back Home” is about the anti-apartheid leader Nelson Mandela.
One-line summary: The required contrast is the subjects of the two protest songs.
✓ B) While both are protest songs, “Poor Miner’s Farewell” is about coal miners in Kentucky, whereas “Bring Him Back Home” is about the anti-apartheid leader Nelson Mandela.
It names both songs and contrasts Kentucky coal miners with Nelson Mandela.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) The songs “Poor Miner’s Farewell” and “Bring Him Back Home” both raised awareness about human rights violations. — One choice states only a similarity, while the others describe only one song.
✗ C) Hugh Masekela’s song “Bring Him Back Home,” released in 1987, called on the South African government to free Nelson Mandela. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) Released in 1932 by Aunt Molly Jackson, the song “Poor Miner’s Farewell” was a protest against the unlivable wages and dangerous working conditions faced by Kentucky coal miners. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 32 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: • Political scientist Graham Allison is known for his Thucydides trap theory.
- Allison’s theory states that whenever “a rising power is threatening to displace a ruling power,” conflict is likely. • The theory is based on Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict between Athens and Sparta.
- Thucydides wrote that “the rise of Athens and the fear this instilled in Sparta” made conflict “inevitable.” • History professor Edmund Stewart recently challenged the historical basis of the theory. • Stewart claimed that Athens was not a rising power and that the rivals experienced a “clash of cultures” instead.
The student wants to use a quotation to challenge Thucydides’s explanation of the conflict between Athens and Sparta. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) According to Allison’s Thucydides trap theory, whenever “a rising power is threatening to displace a ruling power,” conflict is likely.
- B) Thucydides wrote that conflict between the two powers was “inevitable,” although Stewart later challenged the historical basis of this claim.
- C) According to Stewart, a “clash of cultures” between Athens and Sparta caused the conflict, not Athens’s rise.
- D) Thucydides explained that conflict was caused by “the rise of Athens and the fear this instilled in Sparta,” but Allison disagreed, seeing the conflict as an example of the Thucydides trap. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only. Do not turn to any other module in the test.
Answer: C) According to Stewart, a “clash of cultures” between Athens and Sparta caused the conflict, not Athens’s rise.
One-line summary: Stewart’s quotation supplies an alternate explanation for the Athens-Sparta conflict.
✓ C) According to Stewart, a “clash of cultures” between Athens and Sparta caused the conflict, not Athens’s rise.
‘Clash of cultures’ explicitly challenges the claim that Athens’s rise caused the conflict.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) According to Allison’s Thucydides trap theory, whenever “a rising power is threatening to displace a ruling power,” conflict is likely. — The other quotations do not challenge Thucydides, or they misstate Allison’s agreement with the theory.
✗ B) Thucydides wrote that conflict between the two powers was “inevitable,” although Stewart later challenged the historical basis of this claim. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ D) Thucydides explained that conflict was caused by “the rise of Athens and the fear this instilled in Sparta,” but Allison disagreed, seeing the conflict as an example of the Thucydides trap. STOP If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this module only. Do not turn to any other module in the test. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
Question 33 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes: • Researchers in a 2021 study wanted to determine the rate at which 17 languages conveyed both information and syllables.
- They calculated the bits of information conveyed per second (the IR, or information rate). • The IR was found to be approximately consistent across the 17 languages (an average of 39 bits per second).
- They calculated the number of syllables spoken per second (the SR, or syllable rate). • Spanish had the second-fastest SR (7.7 syllables per second). • Vietnamese had the sixteenth-fastest SR (5.3 syllables per second).
The student wants to present an overview of the study’s findings. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) The 2021 study determined the information rate (IR) of 17 languages in bits of information conveyed per second.
- B) Researchers found that information was conveyed more quickly in Spanish, at 7.7 syllables per second, than in Vietnamese, at 5.3 syllables per second.
- C) Vietnamese had the sixteenth-fastest syllable rate, lower than that of Spanish, which had the second-fastest; however, Spanish had the lower information rate of the two.
- D) Though some of the languages differed in number of syllables spoken per second, all 17 conveyed information at roughly the same rate. 2
Answer: D) Though some of the languages differed in number of syllables spoken per second, all 17 conveyed information at roughly the same rate. 2
One-line summary: The overview must combine varying syllable rates with broadly consistent information rates.
✓ D) Though some of the languages differed in number of syllables spoken per second, all 17 conveyed information at roughly the same rate. 2
This choice captures the study’s all-language pattern rather than one metric or one pair of languages.
✗ Why the other choices fail
✗ A) The 2021 study determined the information rate (IR) of 17 languages in bits of information conveyed per second. — The other choices are incomplete, too narrow, or misstate the information-rate result.
✗ B) Researchers found that information was conveyed more quickly in Spanish, at 7.7 syllables per second, than in Vietnamese, at 5.3 syllables per second. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
✗ C) Vietnamese had the sixteenth-fastest syllable rate, lower than that of Spanish, which had the second-fastest; however, Spanish had the lower information rate of the two. — It does not fit the text’s stated meaning, evidence, or grammar as precisely as the correct choice.
How SOMATH prepares NYC students for the Digital SAT
SOMATH (School of Math) is a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan, cofounded by Marcelo Ambrozio (Northwestern-trained lead math teacher) and Vivianne Wright (Harvard-trained, also runs MBA House, one of the largest international GMAT/EA prep firms). Math is our core focus, but a strong Digital SAT score requires both sections, so our Digital SAT track covers Reading & Writing too.
- Small-group in-person classes (6–8 students max) at 226 W 79th Street on the Upper West Side.
- Structured curriculum aligned to all four Math domains and all four Reading & Writing domains.
- Skill-tagged drilling. We break every R&W question into the exact tested skill so students know exactly what to practice.
- Full-length timed modules for both Math and R&W with graded feedback and week-by-week score tracking.
- Free 30-minute in-person diagnostic evaluation before enrollment, with a written diagnostic within 48 hours.
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Digital SAT Practice Test 7 R&W Module 1 FAQ
How many questions are in Practice Test 7 Reading & Writing Module 1?
This module contains 33 multiple-choice questions. This walkthrough includes every question, all four answer choices, the official answer letter, and an explanation.
Which questions in this module use a graph or table?
Question 12 uses a graph of survey factors. Questions 15 and 16 use graphs; this walkthrough reproduces the values needed to answer each item and links to the full official PDF above.
Which skills appear most often in this module?
Practice Test 7 Module 1 includes five Words in Context questions, Text Structure & Purpose items, evidence and inference items, conventions questions, one transition question, and six Rhetorical Synthesis questions.
How should I review a missed Practice Test 7 question?
First identify the skill label at the top of the question. Then state the rule or textual evidence that eliminates each wrong choice before you redo the item without looking at the answer.
Where is SOMATH located?
226 West 79th Street, 1st Floor, New York, NY 10024, on the Upper West Side of Manhattan. Call (646) 668-6151 to book a free 30-minute in-person diagnostic evaluation.
Related posts
- Continue with Digital SAT Practice Test 7 — Module 2 Reading & Writing Walkthrough (All 33 Questions).
- Pair this with Digital SAT Practice Test 7 — Math Module 1 Walkthrough (All 27 Questions).
- Then complete Digital SAT Practice Test 7 — Math Module 2 Walkthrough (All 27 Questions).
- Compare another first R&W module: Digital SAT Practice Test 5 — Reading & Writing Module 1 Walkthrough.
- Digital SAT Practice Test 4 — Reading & Writing Module 1 Walkthrough.
- SAT Prep on the Upper West Side, NYC (2026 Guide).
- Digital SAT Tutoring in NYC: Structure, Dates & Scores (2026).