Digital SAT · Reading & Writing · Exam Prep · NYC Test Prep
Digital SAT Practice Test 4 — Module 2: Full Walkthrough of All 33 Reading & Writing Questions with Answers & Explanations
Every question on Digital SAT Practice Test #4, Reading & Writing Module 2, transcribed verbatim, with the official College Board answer key, a plain-English explanation for every choice, theory refreshers on every tested skill, and a free PDF download. Built by SOMATH, the math school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan.
Looking for the answers, explanations, and full walkthrough of Digital SAT Practice Test 4 — Reading & Writing Module 2? You are in the right place. This is a complete, question-by-question walkthrough of SAT Test #4, Reading & Writing Module 2 — every one of the 33 questions transcribed verbatim, with the official College Board answer for each item and a plain-English explanation of why every wrong choice is wrong. Theory refreshers on every skill category are included, plus a free PDF download of the entire walkthrough for offline studying.
Module 2 is the second Reading & Writing module on the Digital SAT, and unlike Module 1, it is stage-adaptive: the difficulty of the questions you see depends on how you scored on Module 1. Students who did well on Module 1 see a harder Module 2 with access to the full 800; students who struggled see an easier Module 2 that typically caps in the mid-600s. Either way, drilling Module 2 question by question — across both difficulty bands — is essential prep, since the underlying skills tested are identical.
Whether you are a student prepping for the next SAT test date, a parent looking for answer explanations, or a teacher building a review packet, this walkthrough is designed to be the most complete, honest, and student-friendly Digital SAT Reading & Writing walkthrough on the internet. Written by the same team that teaches Digital SAT prep at SOMATH, a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of New York City run by Northwestern-trained cofounder Marcelo Ambrozio and Harvard-trained cofounder Vivianne Wright.
Answer key at a glance
All 33 answers in one table for quick review — jump straight to any question by scrolling to its section below:
| Q | Answer | Q | Answer | Q | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | D) predicted | 12 | B | 23 | D) walls. With |
| 2 | D) overcome | 13 | D | 24 | A) to forge |
| 3 | B) inspecting | 14 | C | 25 | B) the bioswales have mitigated… |
| 4 | B) comparable to | 15 | C | 26 | B) continents: geological |
| 5 | B) atypical | 16 | A | 27 | A) Afterward, |
| 6 | B) created | 17 | B | 28 | A) Alternatively, |
| 7 | A) proponent of | 18 | D | 29 | C |
| 8 | C) buttress | 19 | C) stories…immigrants | 30 | C |
| 9 | C | 20 | A) of | 31 | A |
| 10 | A | 21 | B) company that | 32 | A |
| 11 | A | 22 | D) carbon-13 (13C), | 33 | B |
Sections
- Theory refresher · What Module 2 tests
- Section 1 · Words in Context (Q1–8)
- Section 2 · Text Structure, Purpose & Central Ideas (Q9–12)
- Section 3 · Command of Evidence & Inferences (Q13–18)
- Section 4 · Standard English Conventions, Transitions & Rhetorical Synthesis (Q19–33)
- How SOMATH prepares NYC students for the Digital SAT
- Digital SAT FAQ
Theory refresher · What Module 2 tests
The Digital SAT Reading & Writing section has two 32-minute modules of 27 scored + 2 pretest questions each. Module 2 is stage-adaptive — your Module 1 performance determines whether you see the harder or easier version of Module 2. Every R&W question is short (roughly 25–150 words of passage) with four multiple-choice options, and the tested skills are identical across both modules. The four content domains are:
1 · Craft & Structure
Words in context (Q1–8 in this test) — A short passage has a blank; four candidate words are given. Pick the one that makes the strongest logical fit with the surrounding sentences. Do not fall for a synonym that is technically related but doesn't match the specific meaning the passage requires.
Text structure and function — Identify the function of an underlined sentence within the passage as a whole, or the overall purpose of a text.
2 · Information & Ideas
Central ideas & details — What does the passage actually say? Answer what is on the page, not what you know about the topic.
Command of evidence (textual and quantitative) — Which quotation best illustrates the claim? Which finding, if true, would most support or weaken the conclusion? For graph-based items, read the graph carefully — the correct answer is always consistent with the data, not just plausible.
Inferences (logical completion) — What most logically follows from the passage? These are the hardest items on the module because there is no blank to fill — you must reason from evidence to a conclusion the passage never states outright.
3 · Standard English Conventions
Punctuation between clauses and sentences. Two independent clauses need a semicolon, a period, or a comma + coordinator (and, but, or, so). Two independent clauses joined by only a comma is a comma splice; fused with no punctuation at all is a run-on — both are common traps.
Plural vs. possessive nouns. Watch for apostrophes that don't belong: “stories” (plural) vs. “story’s” (singular possessive) vs. “stories’” (plural possessive) are easy to mix up under time pressure.
Finite vs. nonfinite verbs. A to-infinitive (“to forge”) can explain purpose without needing a subject of its own. A present participle (“forging”) attached without a comma implies the subject of the main clause is doing that action — which can create an illogical meaning.
Dangling modifiers. An introductory modifying phrase (“By reducing the runoff…”) must be immediately followed by the noun actually doing that action. If the next noun isn't the one performing the action, the modifier “dangles” and the sentence becomes illogical.
Supplementary elements & colons. A colon introduces an explanation or amplification of the preceding clause. A pair of commas (or dashes) can set off a supplementary phrase that could be removed without breaking the sentence's grammar.
4 · Expression of Ideas
Transitions. Choose the connector that best captures the logical relationship: afterward (sequence in time), alternatively (an alternative option, not an example or a result), hence / as a result (conclusion), indeed (emphasis/support), similarly (comparison). Read the entire sentence — not just the blank — before picking.
Rhetorical synthesis. The student took notes; the question asks which sentence best uses those notes to accomplish a specific goal (introduce a work to an unfamiliar audience, emphasize duration and purpose, emphasize a similarity, etc.). The correct answer is always the one that meets the stated goal — not the sentence that packs in the most facts.
Every question below is transcribed verbatim from College Board’s Practice Test 4 booklet. Try each one, then click Show answer & explanation to see the correct letter and a full breakdown of why the other three choices are wrong.
Section 1 · Words in Context (Questions 1–8)
Module 2 opens with eight straight vocabulary-in-context items — more than Module 1. Each has a blank in a short passage and four candidate words. Pick the one that makes the strongest logical fit with the surrounding sentences.
Question 1 · Words in Context
The fashion resale market, in which consumers purchase secondhand clothing from stores and online sellers, generated nearly $30 billion globally in 2019. Expecting to see continued growth, some analysts _______ that revenues will more than double by 2028.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) produced
- B) denied
- C) worried
- D) predicted
Answer: D) predicted
✗ A) produced. It wouldn't make sense to say analysts "manufactured" or brought about future revenue growth — they were merely drawing conclusions about the future based on 2019 revenue.
✗ B) denied. The text says analysts expect continued growth, not that they rejected the idea of growth.
✗ C) worried. Nothing suggests the analysts felt concerned about the increase; the text presents the growth as a favorable outcome.
✓ D) predicted. "Predicted" means forecast. The text says analysts expect continued growth and indicate that revenues will more than double by 2028 — exactly a forecast.
Question 2 · Words in Context
Artificially delivering biomolecules to plant cells is an important component of protecting plants from pathogens, but it is difficult to transmit biomolecules through the layers of the plant cell wall. Markita del Carpio Landry and her colleagues have shown that it may be possible to _______ this problem by transmitting molecules through carbon nanotubes, which can cross cell walls.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) conceptualize
- B) neglect
- C) illustrate
- D) overcome
Answer: D) overcome
✗ A) conceptualize. The difficulty is presented as a known problem Landry's team may have solved, not a mysterious occurrence they have yet to form ideas about.
✗ B) neglect. The text suggests they may successfully deal with the problem, not disregard or ignore it.
✗ C) illustrate. Carbon nanotubes are presented as a way of solving the problem, not a means of demonstrating it.
✓ D) overcome. "Overcome" means to succeed in dealing with an obstacle. Landry and colleagues have shown it may be possible to succeed in dealing with the obstacle of transmitting biomolecules through cell walls, using carbon nanotubes.
Question 3 · Words in Context
Particle physicists like Ayana Holloway Arce and Aida El-Khadra spend much of their time _______ what is invisible to the naked eye: using sophisticated technology, they closely examine the behavior of subatomic particles, the smallest detectable parts of matter.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) selecting
- B) inspecting
- C) creating
- D) deciding
Answer: B) inspecting
✗ A) selecting. Nothing suggests Arce and El-Khadra spend time "choosing" subatomic particles for some purpose.
✓ B) inspecting. "Inspecting" means viewing closely to examine. The text says they use advanced technology to "closely examine" subatomic particles — that's inspecting.
✗ C) creating. Nothing suggests they spend time bringing subatomic particles into existence; the text says they observe existing particles.
✗ D) deciding. It wouldn't make sense to say physicists choose what is and isn't visible to the naked eye — the text focuses on their close observation, not on decisions they make.
Question 4 · Words in Context
Anthropologist Kristian J. Carlson and colleagues examined the fossilized clavicle and shoulder bones of a 3.6-million-year-old early hominin known as “Little Foot.” They found that these bones were _______ the clavicle and shoulder bones of modern apes that are frequent climbers, such as gorillas and chimpanzees, suggesting that Little Foot had adapted to life in the trees.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) surpassed by
- B) comparable to
- C) independent of
- D) obtained from
Answer: B) comparable to
✗ A) surpassed by. If Little Foot's bones were exceeded by or inferior to modern climbing apes' bones, that would suggest poor adaptation to climbing, not adaptation.
✓ B) comparable to. "Comparable to" means similar to. The relationship between Little Foot's bones and frequent-climber bones is one of similarity, supporting the conclusion that Little Foot was adapted to moving in trees.
✗ C) independent of. If the bones were unrelated to modern climbers' bones, that would not suggest tree adaptation.
✗ D) obtained from. Little Foot's bones are 3.6 million years old, so they couldn't have been acquired from modern apes.
Question 5 · Words in Context
Rydra Wong, the protagonist of Samuel R. Delany’s 1966 novel Babel-17, is a poet, an occupation which, in Delany’s work, is not _______: nearly a dozen of the characters that populate his novels are poets or writers.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) infallible
- B) atypical
- C) lucrative
- D) tedious
Answer: B) atypical
✗ A) infallible. "Infallible" means without fault, which doesn't fit; the text is about how common the occupation is, not whether it's flawless.
✓ B) atypical. "Atypical" means uncommon. Wong is one of nearly a dozen poet/writer characters in Delany's novels, so being a poet isn't atypical for his characters.
✗ C) lucrative. "Lucrative" means profitable, which is irrelevant to how common the occupation is among Delany's characters.
✗ D) tedious. "Tedious" means boring; the text is about frequency of the occupation among characters, not how boring it is.
Question 6 · Words in Context
For a 2020 exhibition, photographer and neurobiologist Okunola Jeyifous _______ a series of new images based on a series of alphabet posters from the 1970s known as the “Black ABCs,” which featured Black children from Chicago. Jeyifous photographed the now-adult models and layered the photos over magnified images of the models’ cells, resulting in what he called “micro and macro portraiture.”
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) validated
- B) created
- C) challenged
- D) restored
Answer: B) created
✗ A) validated. Nothing suggests Jeyifous corroborated the images; the text describes his process for composing them, not evaluating their legitimacy.
✓ B) created. "Created" means produced. Jeyifous drew on his dual interests in photography and neurobiology to produce the images for the exhibition — the process the text describes is one of creation.
✗ C) challenged. Nothing suggests Jeyifous disputed an aspect of the images; the focus is on the inspiration and method behind them.
✗ D) restored. The text indicates Jeyifous made the images himself, not that he reconditioned deteriorated images.
Question 7 · Words in Context
In addition to being an accomplished psychologist himself, Francis Cecil Sumner was a _______ increasing the opportunity for Black students to study psychology, helping to found the psychology department at Howard University, a historically Black university, in 1930.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) proponent of
- B) supplement to
- C) beneficiary of
- D) distraction for
Answer: A) proponent of
✓ A) proponent of. "Proponent of" means supporter of. Sumner helped found Howard University's psychology department, which is evidence he supported increasing opportunity for Black students to study psychology.
✗ B) supplement to. "Addition to" doesn't make sense — Sumner can't be described as an addition to his own efforts.
✗ C) beneficiary of. Black students were the beneficiaries of Sumner's efforts; Sumner was the one doing the helping, not receiving it.
✗ D) distraction for. Founding the department advanced Sumner's goal, rather than drawing his attention away from it.
Question 8 · Words in Context
Whether the reign of a French monarch such as Hugh Capet or Henry I was historically consequential or relatively uneventful, its trajectory was shaped by questions of legitimacy and therefore cannot be understood without a corollary understanding of the factors that allowed the monarch to _______ his right to hold the throne.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) reciprocate
- B) annotate
- C) buttress
- D) disengage
Answer: C) buttress
✗ A) reciprocate. "Reciprocate" would mean he returned his right to the throne or responded in kind — neither fits a monarch defending his right to reign.
✗ B) annotate. Nothing suggests monarchs wrote notes about their right to the throne.
✓ C) buttress. "Buttress" means to strengthen or defend. Monarchs facing questions about legitimacy had to defend their right to the throne — exactly what "buttress" conveys.
✗ D) disengage. The text focuses on people who did reign and defended their right to do so, not people who withdrew.
Section 2 · Text Structure, Purpose & Central Ideas (Questions 9–12)
Function-of-a-sentence, how-researchers-determined items, weaken-the-hypothesis, and quotation-that-illustrates-the-claim — all require reading the whole passage before answering.
Question 9 · Text Structure & Purpose
Some bird species don’t raise their own chicks. Instead, adult females lay their eggs in other nests, next to another bird species’ own eggs. Female cuckoos have been seen quickly laying eggs in the nests of other bird species when those birds are out looking for food. After the eggs hatch, the noncuckoo parents will typically raise the cuckoo chicks as if they were their own offspring, even if the cuckoos look very different from the other chicks.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?
- A) It introduces a physical feature of female cuckoos that is described later in the text.
- B) It describes the appearance of the cuckoo nests mentioned earlier in the text.
- C) It offers a detail about how female cuckoos carry out the behavior discussed in the text.
- D) It explains how other birds react to the female cuckoo behavior discussed in the text.
Answer: C) It offers a detail about how female cuckoos carry out the behavior discussed in the text.
✗ A) It introduces a physical feature of female cuckoos that is described later in the text. The underlined sentence introduces a specific behavior, not a physical feature. The only mention of appearance is the last sentence's general note that cuckoo chicks look different.
✗ B) It describes the appearance of the cuckoo nests mentioned earlier in the text. The sentence refers to the nests of other bird species and doesn't describe how any nest looks; it addresses how female cuckoos use those nests.
✓ C) It offers a detail about how female cuckoos carry out the behavior discussed in the text. The first two sentences establish that some birds lay eggs in others' nests. The underlined sentence adds the specific detail that female cuckoos do this while the host birds are out looking for food — a detail about how the behavior is carried out.
✗ D) It explains how other birds react to the female cuckoo behavior discussed in the text. It's the last sentence of the text, not the underlined one, that addresses how the other birds react (by raising the cuckoo chicks).
Question 10 · Central Ideas & Details
Cats can judge unseen people’s positions in space by the sound of their voices and thus react with surprise when the same person calls to them from two different locations in a short span of time. Saho Takagi and colleagues reached this conclusion by measuring cats’ levels of surprise based on their ear and head movements while the cats heard recordings of their owners’ voices from two speakers spaced far apart. Cats exhibited a low level of surprise when owners’ voices were played twice from the same speaker, but they showed a high level of surprise when the voice was played once each from the two different speakers.
According to the text, how did the researchers determine the level of surprise displayed by the cats in the study?
- A) They watched how each cat moved its ears and head.
- B) They examined how each cat reacted to the voice of a stranger.
- C) They studied how each cat physically interacted with its owner.
- D) They tracked how each cat moved around the room.
Answer: A) They watched how each cat moved its ears and head.
✓ A) They watched how each cat moved its ears and head. The text explicitly says Takagi and colleagues measured surprise "based on their ear and head movements" while the cats heard the recordings.
✗ B) They examined how each cat reacted to the voice of a stranger. The recordings were of each cat's own owner's voice, not a stranger's.
✗ C) They studied how each cat physically interacted with its owner. The cats didn't interact directly with their owners during the study — they listened to recordings.
✗ D) They tracked how each cat moved around the room. The text never mentions monitoring the cats' movement around the room.
Question 11 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
A student performs an experiment testing her hypothesis that a slightly acidic soil environment is more beneficial for the growth of the plant Brassica rapa parachinensis (a vegetable commonly known as choy sum) than a neutral soil environment. She plants sixteen seeds of choy sum in a mixture of equal amounts of coffee grounds (which are highly acidic) and potting soil and another sixteen seeds in potting soil without coffee grounds as the control for the experiment. The two groups of seeds were exposed to the same growing conditions and monitored for three weeks.
Which finding, if true, would most directly weaken the student’s hypothesis?
- A) The choy sum planted in the soil without coffee grounds were significantly taller at the end of the experiment than the choy sum planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.
- B) The choy sum grown in the soil without coffee grounds weighed significantly less at the end of the experiment than the choy sum grown in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.
- C) The choy sum seeds planted in the soil without coffee grounds sprouted significantly later in the experiment than did the seeds planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.
- D) Significantly fewer of the choy sum seeds planted in the soil without coffee grounds sprouted plants than did the seeds planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.
Answer: A) The choy sum planted in the soil without coffee grounds were significantly taller at the end of the experiment than the choy sum planted in the mixture of soil and coffee grounds.
✓ A) …were significantly taller…without coffee grounds. If the plants in the neutral (control) soil grew taller than those in the acidic mixture, that directly contradicts the hypothesis that acidic soil is more beneficial — weakening it.
✗ B) …weighed significantly less…without coffee grounds. Less growth in the neutral soil would strengthen, not weaken, the hypothesis that acidic soil is better.
✗ C) …sprouted significantly later…without coffee grounds. Slower sprouting in neutral soil would also strengthen the hypothesis, not weaken it.
✗ D) …significantly fewer…sprouted…without coffee grounds. Fewer sprouts in neutral soil would strengthen the hypothesis that acidic soil benefits choy sum, not weaken it.
Question 12 · Command of Evidence (Textual)
“The Young Girl” is a 1920 short story by Katherine Mansfield. In the story, the narrator takes an unnamed seventeen-year-old girl and her younger brother out for a meal. In describing the teenager, Mansfield frequently contrasts the character’s pleasant appearance with her unpleasant attitude, as when Mansfield writes of the teenager, _______
Which quotation from “The Young Girl” most effectively illustrates the claim?
- A) “I heard her murmur, ‘I can’t bear flowers on a table.’ They had evidently been giving her intense pain, for she positively closed her eyes as I moved them away.”
- B) “While we waited she took out a little, gold powder-box with a mirror in the lid, shook the poor little puff as though she loathed it, and dabbed her lovely nose.”
- C) “I saw, after that, she couldn’t stand this place a moment longer, and, indeed, she jumped up and turned away while I went through the vulgar act of paying for the tea.”
- D) “She didn’t even take her gloves off. She lowered her eyes and drummed on the table. When a faint violin sounded she winced and bit her lip again. Silence.”
Answer: B) “While we waited she took out a little, gold powder-box…dabbed her lovely nose.”
✗ A) “I heard her murmur…flowers on a table.”… The reaction to the flowers doesn't clearly show an unpleasant attitude, and nothing here indicates a pleasant appearance.
✓ B) “…shook the poor little puff as though she loathed it, and dabbed her lovely nose.” This quotation compliments her appearance ("lovely nose") while also showing an unpleasant attitude (treating the puff "as though she loathed it") — exactly the contrast the claim describes.
✗ C) “I saw, after that, she couldn’t stand this place…” This shows an unpleasant attitude (impatience, rudeness about the bill) but gives no indication of a pleasant appearance.
✗ D) “She didn’t even take her gloves off…” This suggests an unpleasant attitude (lowering eyes, wincing, silence) but no indication of pleasant appearance.
Section 3 · Command of Evidence & Inferences (Questions 13–18)
A graph-reading item, a support-the-hypothesis item, two quotation/logical-completion items, and two “most logically follows” inference items — the most reasoning-heavy stretch of the module.
Question 13 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
High levels of public uncertainty about which economic policies a country will adopt can make planning difficult for businesses, but measures of such uncertainty have not tended to be very detailed. Recently, however, economist Sandile Hlatshwayo analyzed trends in news reports to derive measures not only for general economic policy uncertainty but also for uncertainty related to specific areas of economic policy, like tax or trade policy. One revelation of her work is that a general measure may not fully reflect uncertainty about specific areas of policy, as in the case of the United Kingdom, where general economic policy uncertainty _______
See bar graph, “Economic Policy Uncertainty in the United Kingdom, 2005–2010,” in the original College Board PDF above.
Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to illustrate the claim?
- A) aligned closely with uncertainty about tax and public spending policy in 2005 but differed from uncertainty about tax and public spending policy by a large amount in 2009.
- B) was substantially lower than uncertainty about tax and public spending policy each year from 2005 to 2010.
- C) reached its highest level between 2005 and 2010 in the same year that uncertainty about trade policy and tax and public spending policy reached their lowest levels.
- D) was substantially lower than uncertainty about trade policy in 2005 and substantially higher than uncertainty about trade policy in 2010.
Answer: D) was substantially lower than uncertainty about trade policy in 2005 and substantially higher than uncertainty about trade policy in 2010.
✗ A) …aligned closely…2005 but differed…2009. The graph shows general economic policy uncertainty was similar to tax/spending uncertainty in both 2005 (≈90 vs. ≈100) and 2009 (≈80 vs. ≈75) — not aligned in one year and different in the other.
✗ B) …substantially lower…each year from 2005 to 2010. General economic policy uncertainty was actually higher than tax/spending uncertainty in 2006, 2007, and 2009 — not lower every year.
✗ C) …reached its highest level…same year…lowest levels. General economic policy uncertainty reached its highest level in 2010, which is also when tax/spending policy uncertainty reached its highest level — not its lowest.
✓ D) …substantially lower…trade policy in 2005…substantially higher…trade policy in 2010. In 2005, general economic policy uncertainty (≈90) was much lower than trade policy uncertainty (≈160). In 2010, general economic policy uncertainty (≈120) was much higher than trade policy uncertainty (≈70). This large swing supports the claim that the general measure doesn't fully reflect uncertainty about specific policy areas.
Question 14 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
Linguist Deborah Tannen has cautioned against framing contentious issues in terms of two highly competitive perspectives, such as pro versus con. According to Tannen, this debate-driven approach can strip issues of their complexity and, when used in front of an audience, can be less informative than the presentation of multiple perspectives in a noncompetitive format. To test Tannen’s hypothesis, students conducted a study in which they showed participants one of three different versions of local news commentary about the same issue. Each version featured a debate between two commentators with opposing views, a panel of three commentators with various views, or a single commentator.
Which finding from the students’ study, if true, would most strongly support Tannen’s hypothesis?
- A) On average, participants perceived commentators in the debate as more knowledgeable about the issue than commentators in the panel.
- B) On average, participants perceived commentators in the panel as more knowledgeable about the issue than the single commentator.
- C) On average, participants who watched the panel correctly answered more questions about the issue than those who watched the debate or the single commentator did.
- D) On average, participants who watched the single commentator correctly answered more questions about the issue than those who watched the debate did.
Answer: C) On average, participants who watched the panel correctly answered more questions about the issue than those who watched the debate or the single commentator did.
✗ A) …perceived commentators in the debate as more knowledgeable…than…the panel. Perception of knowledgeability is irrelevant to Tannen's hypothesis, which is about how informative the format is to the audience, not how knowledgeable panelists seem.
✗ B) …perceived commentators in the panel as more knowledgeable…than the single commentator. Same issue — perception of knowledgeability doesn't measure how much participants actually learned, and Tannen's hypothesis says nothing about single commentators specifically.
✓ C) …participants who watched the panel correctly answered more questions…than…the debate or the single commentator did. This shows participants who saw multiple varied perspectives (the panel) were better informed than those who saw a debate — exactly what Tannen's hypothesis predicts.
✗ D) …single commentator…more questions…than…the debate. Tannen's hypothesis is about noncompetitive multi-perspective formats vs. debates, not about single commentators vs. debates.
Question 15 · Command of Evidence (Textual)
King Lear is a circa 1606 play by William Shakespeare. In the play, the character of King Lear attempts to test his three daughters’ devotion to him. He later expresses regret for his actions, as is evident when he _______
Which choice most effectively uses a quotation from King Lear to illustrate the claim?
- A) says of himself, “I am a man / more sinned against than sinning.”
- B) says during a growing storm, “This tempest will not give me leave to ponder / On things would hurt me more.”
- C) says to himself while striking his head, “Beat at this gate that let thy folly in / And thy dear judgement out!”
- D) says of himself, “I will do such things— / What they are yet, I know not; but they shall be / The terrors of the earth!”
Answer: C) says to himself while striking his head, “Beat at this gate that let thy folly in / And thy dear judgement out!”
✗ A) “I am a man / more sinned against than sinning.” This expresses his belief that others have harmed him more than he has harmed them — not regret over his own actions.
✗ B) “This tempest will not give me leave to ponder…” This is about the approaching storm preventing him from dwelling on future harm — not regret over past actions.
��� C) “Beat at this gate that let thy folly in / And thy dear judgement out!” Lear strikes his own head while speaking, metaphorically describing his mind as a gate that let in folly (poor judgment) and let good judgment escape — a direct expression of regret over his own poor decisions (testing his daughters).
✗ D) “I will do such things…terrors of the earth!” This is a vow to commit future terrible actions, not regret over actions already taken.
Question 16 · Inferences
Many of William Shakespeare’s tragedies address broad themes that still appeal to today’s audiences. For instance, Romeo and Juliet, which is set in the Italy of Shakespeare’s time, tackles the themes of parents versus children and love versus hate, and the play continues to be read and produced widely around the world. But understanding Shakespeare’s so-called history plays can require a knowledge of several centuries of English history. Consequently, _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) many theatergoers and readers today are likely to find Shakespeare’s history plays less engaging than the tragedies.
- B) some of Shakespeare’s tragedies are more relevant to today’s audiences than twentieth-century plays.
- C) Romeo and Juliet is the most thematically accessible of all Shakespeare’s tragedies.
- D) experts in English history tend to prefer Shakespeare’s history plays to his other works.
Answer: A) many theatergoers and readers today are likely to find Shakespeare’s history plays less engaging than the tragedies.
✓ A) …less engaging than the tragedies. The tragedies address timeless themes accessible without special background knowledge, while the history plays require knowledge of centuries of English history that most readers lack. It logically follows that modern audiences would find the history plays less engaging than the more accessible tragedies.
✗ B) …more relevant…than twentieth-century plays. The text never compares Shakespeare's tragedies to twentieth-century plays at all — only to his own history plays.
✗ C) Romeo and Juliet is the most thematically accessible… The text uses Romeo and Juliet only as an example of a broadly appealing tragedy; it never ranks it against Shakespeare's other tragedies.
✗ D) …experts in English history tend to prefer… The text never mentions historians or experts, or their personal preferences.
Question 17 · Inferences
Ancestral Puebloans, the civilization from which present-day Pueblo tribes descended, emerged as early as 1500 B.C.E. in an area of what is now the southwestern United States and dispersed suddenly in the late 1200s C.E., abandoning established villages with systems for farming crops and turkeys. Recent analysis comparing turkey remains at Mesa Verde, one such village in southern Colorado, to samples from modern turkey populations in the Rio Grande Valley of north central New Mexico determined that the latter birds descended in part from turkeys cultivated at Mesa Verde, with shared genetic markers appearing only after 1280. Thus, researchers concluded that _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) conditions of the terrains in the Rio Grande Valley and Mesa Verde had greater similarities in the past than they do today.
- B) some Ancestral Puebloans migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried farming practices with them.
- C) Indigenous peoples living in the Rio Grande Valley primarily planted crops and did not cultivate turkeys before 1280.
- D) the Ancestral Puebloans of Mesa Verde likely adopted the farming practices of Indigenous peoples living in other regions.
Answer: B) some Ancestral Puebloans migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried farming practices with them.
✗ A) …terrains…had greater similarities in the past… The text never compares the terrain conditions of the two locations, past or present.
✓ B) …migrated to the Rio Grande Valley in the late 1200s and carried farming practices with them. The Ancestral Puebloans abandoned Mesa Verde in the late 1200s, and genetic markers shared between Mesa Verde and Rio Grande Valley turkeys appeared only after 1280 — together these facts support the conclusion that migrants brought turkey-farming practices to the valley.
✗ C) …did not cultivate turkeys before 1280. Shared genetic markers descending in part from Mesa Verde turkeys doesn't eliminate the possibility that valley residents already farmed turkeys before 1280.
✗ D) …Mesa Verde…adopted farming practices of…other regions. The text provides evidence of the reverse direction — Mesa Verde Puebloans brought turkey farming to the Rio Grande Valley, not the other way around.
Question 18 · Inferences
One challenge when researching whether holding elected office changes a person’s behavior is the problem of ensuring that the experiment has an appropriate control group. To reveal the effect of holding office, researchers must compare people who hold elected office with people who do not hold office but who are otherwise similar to the office-holders. Since researchers are unable to control which politicians win elections, they therefore _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) struggle to find valid data about the behavior of politicians who do not currently hold office.
- B) can only conduct valid studies with people who have previously held office rather than people who presently hold office.
- C) should select a control group of people who differ from office holders in several significant ways.
- D) will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group for their studies.
Answer: D) will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group for their studies.
✗ A) …struggle to find valid data about…politicians who do not currently hold office. The passage's focus is the difficulty of assembling a control group, not a general struggle to find data about non-office-holders.
✗ B) …only conduct valid studies with people who have previously held office… Studying only people who already held office wouldn't reveal behavioral changes caused by holding office in the first place.
✗ C) …should select a control group…who differ…in several significant ways. The text defines the control group as people "otherwise similar" to office-holders — the opposite of choosing people who differ significantly.
✓ D) …will find it difficult to identify a group of people who can function as an appropriate control group. Since researchers can't control who wins elections, they can't determine who would serve as an appropriately similar control group — this follows directly from the passage's stated challenge.
Section 4 · Standard English Conventions, Transitions & Rhetorical Synthesis (Questions 19–33)
Fifteen straight grammar, transition, and rhetorical-synthesis items to close out the module — the highest-volume, most drillable section of the Digital SAT R&W.
Question 19 · Form/Structure/Sense
In his groundbreaking book Bengali Harlem and the Lost Histories of South Asian America, Vivek Bald uses newspaper articles, census records, ships’ logs, and memoirs to tell the _______ who made New York City their home in the early twentieth century.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) story’s of the South Asian immigrants
- B) story’s of the South Asian immigrants’
- C) stories of the South Asian immigrants
- D) stories’ of the South Asian immigrant’s
Answer: C) stories of the South Asian immigrants
✗ A) story’s of the South Asian immigrants. The context requires the plural noun "stories" (multiple stories are told), not the singular possessive "story's."
✗ B) story’s of the South Asian immigrants’. Requires plural "stories" and "immigrants," not the singular possessive "story's" and plural possessive "immigrants'."
✓ C) stories of the South Asian immigrants. The plural nouns "stories" and "immigrants" correctly indicate that the book tells multiple stories of multiple immigrants — no apostrophes needed.
✗ D) stories’ of the South Asian immigrant’s. Requires plain plural nouns, not the plural possessive "stories'" and singular possessive "immigrant's."
Question 20 · Boundaries
In her two major series “Memory Test” and “Autobiography,” painter Howardena Pindell explored themes _______ healing, self-discovery, and memory by cutting and sewing back together pieces of canvas and inserting personal artifacts, such as postcards, into some of the paintings.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) of
- B) of,
- C) of—
- D) of:
Answer: A) of
✓ A) of. No punctuation is needed between the preposition "of" and its complement, the noun phrase "healing, self-discovery, and memory."
✗ B) of, A comma should not separate a preposition from its complement.
✗ C) of— A dash should not separate a preposition from its complement.
✗ D) of: A colon should not separate a preposition from its complement.
Question 21 · Form/Structure/Sense
Both Sona Charaipotra, an Indian American, and Dhonielle Clayton, an African American, grew up frustrated by the lack of diverse characters in books for young people. In 2011, these two writers joined forces to found CAKE Literary, a book packaging _______ specializes in the creation and promotion of stories told from diverse perspectives for children and young adults.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) company,
- B) company that
- C) company
- D) company, that
Answer: B) company that
✗ A) company, Doesn't use a relative pronoun to link the "specializes" verb phrase to the noun phrase "a book packaging company" that it modifies.
✓ B) company that. Correctly uses the relative pronoun "that" with no punctuation to form an integrated relative clause providing essential information about "a book packaging company."
✗ C) company. Same problem as A — no relative pronoun links the modifying clause to the noun phrase.
✗ D) company, that No punctuation should separate an integrated (essential) relative clause from the noun phrase it modifies.
Question 22 · Boundaries
A study led by scientist Rebecca Kirby at the University of Wisconsin–Madison found that black bears that eat human food before hibernation have increased levels of a rare carbon isotope, _______ due to the higher 13C levels in corn and cane sugar. Bears with these elevated levels were also found to have much shorter hibernation periods on average.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) carbon-13, (13C)
- B) carbon-13 (13C)
- C) carbon-13, (13C),
- D) carbon-13 (13C),
Answer: D) carbon-13 (13C),
✗ A) carbon-13, (13C) Fails to properly separate the supplementary element "carbon-13 (13C)" from the rest of the sentence with a matching pair of commas.
✗ B) carbon-13 (13C) Missing the closing comma needed to pair with the comma after "isotope" and set off the supplementary element.
✗ C) carbon-13, (13C), The comma after "carbon-13" is unnecessary because the parentheses around "13C" already separate that element.
✓ D) carbon-13 (13C), The comma after "(13C)" pairs with the comma after "isotope" to correctly set off the supplementary element "carbon-13 (13C)," which defines "a rare carbon isotope" and could be removed without breaking the sentence.
Question 23 · Boundaries
In 2010, archaeologist Noel Hidalgo Tan was visiting the twelfth-century temple of Angkor Wat in Cambodia when he noticed markings of red paint on the temple _______ the help of digital imaging techniques, he discovered the markings to be part of an elaborate mural containing over 200 paintings.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) walls, with
- B) walls with
- C) walls so with
- D) walls. With
Answer: D) walls. With
✗ A) walls, with Results in a comma splice — a comma alone cannot join these two independent clauses.
✗ B) walls with Results in a run-on sentence, fusing two independent clauses with no punctuation or conjunction.
✗ C) walls so with Without a preceding comma, "so" cannot be used this way to join the clauses.
✓ D) walls. With The period correctly marks the boundary between the first sentence ("In…walls") and the second sentence ("With…techniques…paintings"), which opens with a supplementary phrase.
Question 24 · Form/Structure/Sense
Working from an earlier discovery of Charpentier’s, chemists Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna—winners of the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry—re-created and then reprogrammed the so-called “genetic scissors” of a species of DNA-cleaving bacteria _______ a tool that is revolutionizing the field of gene technology.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) to forge
- B) forging
- C) forged
- D) and forging
Answer: A) to forge
✓ A) to forge. The nonfinite to-infinitive "to forge" correctly forms an infinitive clause explaining why the chemists re-created and reprogrammed the bacteria — in order to forge a revolutionary tool.
✗ B) forging. Without a comma separating it from the main clause, this illogically suggests the bacteria themselves are forging a tool.
✗ C) forged. Without a coordinating conjunction like "and" before it, the finite past-tense verb "forged" can't be used this way to describe the chemists' actions.
✗ D) and forging. As a finite verb, present-progressive "forging" is inconsistent with the past-tense verbs used elsewhere; as a nonfinite verb, there's no following main clause for it to modify.
Question 25 · Form/Structure/Sense
In 2016, engineer Vanessa Galvez oversaw the installation of 164 bioswales, vegetated channels designed to absorb and divert stormwater, along the streets of Queens, New York. By reducing the runoff flowing into city sewers, _______
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) the mitigation of both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways has been achieved by bioswales.
- B) the bioswales have mitigated both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways.
- C) the bioswales’ mitigation of both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways has been achieved.
- D) both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways have been mitigated by bioswales.
Answer: B) the bioswales have mitigated both street flooding and the resulting pollution of nearby waterways.
✗ A) the mitigation…has been achieved by bioswales. Placing "the mitigation" right after the modifying phrase creates a dangling modifier — it's unclear what is doing the "reducing."
✓ B) the bioswales have mitigated… Making "the bioswales" the subject immediately after the modifying phrase clearly establishes that the bioswales — not any other noun — are the ones reducing runoff.
✗ C) the bioswales’ mitigation…has been achieved. Same dangling-modifier problem — "the bioswales' mitigation" is not the thing reducing runoff, it's an abstract result.
✗ D) both street flooding and…pollution…have been mitigated by bioswales. Placing "flooding and pollution" right after the modifier illogically suggests the flooding and pollution are what's reducing the runoff.
Question 26 · Boundaries
A study published by Rice University geoscientist Ming Tang in 2019 offers a new explanation for the origin of Earth’s _______ structures called arcs, towering ridges that form when a dense oceanic plate subducts under a less dense continental plate, melts in the mantle below, and then rises and bursts through the continental crust above.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) continents geological
- B) continents: geological
- C) continents; geological
- D) continents. Geological
Answer: B) continents: geological
✗ A) continents geological Fails to mark the boundary between the main clause and the supplementary phrase with any punctuation.
✓ B) continents: geological. The colon correctly marks the boundary between the main clause ("A study…continents") and the supplementary phrase ("geological…above"), introducing the explanation of the origin of Earth's continents.
✗ C) continents; geological A semicolon conventionally joins two independent (main) clauses; the phrase after it here is not an independent clause, so a colon is the better choice.
✗ D) continents. Geological A period here results in a rhetorically unacceptable sentence fragment beginning with "Geological."
Question 27 · Transitions
During a 2021 launch, Rocket Labs’ Electron rocket experienced an unexpected failure: its second-stage booster shut down suddenly after ignition. _______ instead of downplaying the incident, Rocket Labs’ CEO publicly acknowledged what happened and apologized for the loss of the rocket’s payload, which had consisted of two satellites.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
- A) Afterward,
- B) Additionally,
- C) Indeed,
- D) Similarly,
Answer: A) Afterward,
✓ A) Afterward, Signals that the CEO's public acknowledgment and apology occurred after the booster failure, as part of a chronological sequence of events.
✗ B) Additionally, Illogically implies the CEO's response merely occurred in addition to the failure, rather than after it in sequence.
✗ C) Indeed, Illogically signals emphasis or support of the previous statement, not a chronological next step.
✗ D) Similarly, Illogically signals that the CEO's response is similar to the booster failure — it's a reaction to it, not a similar event.
Question 28 · Transitions
When soil becomes contaminated by toxic metals, it can be removed from the ground and disposed of in a landfill. _______ contaminated soil can be detoxified via phytoremediation: plants that can withstand high concentrations of metals absorb the pollutants and store them in their shoots, which are then cut off and safely disposed of, preserving the health of the plants.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
- A) Alternatively,
- B) Specifically,
- C) For example,
- D) As a result,
Answer: A) Alternatively,
✓ A) Alternatively, Correctly signals that phytoremediation is a different option from — an alternative to — the previously described method of removing and landfilling contaminated soil.
✗ B) Specifically, Illogically signals that phytoremediation elaborates on the removal method, when it is actually a distinct alternative to it.
✗ C) For example, Illogically signals that phytoremediation is an example of the removal method, rather than an alternative to it.
✗ D) As a result, Illogically signals that phytoremediation is a consequence of the removal method, rather than an alternative to it.
Question 29 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The calendar used by most of the world (the Gregorian calendar) has 365 days.
• Because 365 days can’t be divided evenly by 7 (the number of days in a week), calendar dates fall on a different day of the week each year.
• The Hanke-Henry permanent calendar, developed as an alternative to the Gregorian calendar, has 364 days.
• Because 364 can be divided evenly by 7, calendar dates fall on the same day of the week each year, which supports more predictable scheduling.
The student wants to explain an advantage of the Hanke-Henry calendar.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) The Gregorian calendar has 365 days, which is one day longer than the Hanke-Henry permanent calendar.
- B) Adopting the Hanke-Henry permanent calendar would help solve a problem with the Gregorian calendar.
- C) Designed so calendar dates would occur on the same day of the week each year, the Hanke-Henry calendar supports more predictable scheduling than does the Gregorian calendar.
- D) The Hanke-Henry permanent calendar was developed as an alternative to the Gregorian calendar, which is currently the most-used calendar in the world.
Answer: C) Designed so calendar dates would occur on the same day of the week each year, the Hanke-Henry calendar supports more predictable scheduling than does the Gregorian calendar.
✗ A) …one day longer than the Hanke-Henry… Compares day counts but never explains why that matters — no advantage is stated.
✗ B) Adopting…would help solve a problem… Gestures at a benefit but never identifies the problem or the solution, so it doesn't actually explain the advantage.
✓ C) Designed so calendar dates would occur on the same day…supports more predictable scheduling… States both the mechanism (same day each year) and the resulting advantage (more predictable scheduling) compared to the Gregorian calendar.
✗ D) …developed as an alternative…most-used calendar in the world. Describes the calendar's origin, not an advantage of using it.
Question 30 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The Haudenosaunee Confederacy is a nearly 1,000-year-old alliance of six Native nations in the northeastern US.
• The members are bound by a centuries-old agreement known as the Great Law of Peace.
• Historian Bruce Johansen is one of several scholars who believe that the principles of the Great Law of Peace influenced the US Constitution.
• This theory is called the influence theory.
• Johansen cites the fact that Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson both studied the Haudenosaunee Confederacy.
The student wants to present the influence theory to an audience unfamiliar with the Haudenosaunee Confederacy.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) Historian Bruce Johansen believes that the Great Law of Peace was very influential.
- B) The influence theory is supported by the fact that Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson both studied the Haudenosaunee Confederacy.
- C) The influence theory holds that the principles of the Great Law of Peace, a centuries-old agreement binding six Native nations in the northeastern US, influenced the US Constitution.
- D) Native people, including the members of the Haudenosaunee Confederacy, influenced the founding of the US in many different ways.
Answer: C) The influence theory holds that the principles of the Great Law of Peace, a centuries-old agreement binding six Native nations in the northeastern US, influenced the US Constitution.
✗ A) Historian Bruce Johansen believes…very influential. Broadly gestures at Johansen's ideas but never names or defines the influence theory itself.
✗ B) …supported by the fact that…studied the Haudenosaunee Confederacy. Cites one piece of supporting evidence but doesn't actually present the theory to an unfamiliar audience.
✓ C) The influence theory holds that…a centuries-old agreement binding six Native nations…influenced the US Constitution. Names the theory, explains its claim, and defines the Great Law of Peace in-line — giving an unfamiliar audience everything needed, without requiring prior knowledge of the Haudenosaunee Confederacy by name.
✗ D) Native people…influenced the founding of the US in many different ways. Too broad and generic — doesn't identify or present the specific influence theory at all.
Question 31 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In 1999, astronomer Todd Henry studied the differences in surface temperature between the Sun and nearby stars.
• His team mapped all stars within 10 parsecs (approximately 200 trillion miles) of the Sun.
• The surface temperature of the Sun is around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star.
• 327 of the 357 stars in the study were classified as K or M stars, with surface temperatures under 8,900°F (cooler than the Sun).
• 11 of the 357 stars in the study were classified as A or F stars, with surface temperatures greater than 10,300°F (hotter than the Sun).
The student wants to emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) At around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star, the Sun is hotter than most but not all of the stars within 10 parsecs of it.
- B) Astronomer Todd Henry determined that the Sun, at around 9,800°F, is a G star, and several other stars within a 10-parsec range are A or F stars.
- C) Of the 357 stars within ten parsecs of the Sun, 327 are classified as K or M stars, with surface temperatures under 8,900°F.
- D) While most of the stars within 10 parsecs of the Sun are classified as K, M, A, or F stars, the Sun is classified as a G star due to its surface temperature of 9,800°F.
Answer: A) At around 9,800°F, which classifies it as a G star, the Sun is hotter than most but not all of the stars within 10 parsecs of it.
✓ A) …the Sun is hotter than most but not all of the stars within 10 parsecs of it. Directly states the Sun's temperature and explicitly compares it to nearby stars as hotter than most (327 of 357) but not all (11 are hotter) — exactly emphasizing relative heat.
✗ B) Astronomer Todd Henry determined…several other stars…are A or F stars. Reports who did the study and a classification fact, but doesn't emphasize how hot the Sun is relative to nearby stars.
✗ C) Of the 357 stars…327 are classified as K or M stars… States a fact about other stars but doesn't mention the Sun's own temperature or compare it directly.
✗ D) …the Sun is classified as a G star due to its surface temperature… Notes the Sun is classified differently from most nearby stars but doesn't emphasize the relative heat comparison.
Question 32 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The Atlantic Monthly magazine was first published in 1857.
• The magazine focused on politics, art, and literature.
• In 2019, historian Cathryn Halverson published the book Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly.”
• Its subject is female authors whose autobiographies appeared in the magazine in the early 1900s.
• One of the authors discussed is Juanita Harrison.
The student wants to introduce Cathryn Halverson’s book to an audience already familiar with the Atlantic Monthly.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) Cathryn Halverson’s Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly” discusses female authors whose autobiographies appeared in the magazine in the early 1900s.
- B) A magazine called the Atlantic Monthly, referred to in Cathryn Halverson’s book title, was first published in 1857.
- C) Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly” features contributors to the Atlantic Monthly, first published in 1857 as a magazine focusing on politics, art, and literature.
- D) An author discussed by Cathryn Halverson is Juanita Harrison, whose autobiography appeared in the Atlantic Monthly in the early 1900s.
Answer: A) Cathryn Halverson’s Faraway Women and the “Atlantic Monthly” discusses female authors whose autobiographies appeared in the magazine in the early 1900s.
✓ A) …discusses female authors whose autobiographies appeared in the magazine in the early 1900s. Names the book and describes its content directly, without wasting space on background information the audience already has (since they're already familiar with the Atlantic Monthly).
✗ B) A magazine called the Atlantic Monthly…was first published in 1857. Introduces the magazine, not Halverson's book — fails the actual goal.
✗ C) …first published in 1857 as a magazine focusing on politics, art, and literature. Assumes the audience is unfamiliar with the Atlantic Monthly by providing background on it — the opposite of the stated goal.
✗ D) An author discussed by Cathryn Halverson is Juanita Harrison… Introduces one author from the book rather than introducing the book itself.
Question 33 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The magnificent frigatebird (fregata magnificens) is a species of seabird that feeds mainly on fish, tuna, squid, and other small sea animals.
• It is unusual among seabirds in that it doesn’t dive into the water for prey.
• One way it acquires food is by using its hook-tipped bill to snatch prey from the surface of the water.
• Another way it acquires food is by taking it from weaker birds by force.
• This behavior is known as kleptoparasitism.
The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two ways a magnificent frigatebird acquires food.
Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) A magnificent frigatebird never dives into the water, instead using its hook-tipped bill to snatch prey from the surface.
- B) Neither of a magnificent frigatebird’s two ways of acquiring food requires the bird to dive into the water.
- C) Of the magnificent frigatebird’s two ways of acquiring food, only one is known as kleptoparasitism.
- D) In addition to snatching prey from the water with its hook-tipped bill, a magnificent frigatebird takes food from other birds by force.
Answer: B) Neither of a magnificent frigatebird’s two ways of acquiring food requires the bird to dive into the water.
✗ A) …never dives into the water, instead using its hook-tipped bill… Describes only the bill-snatching method without diving; it doesn't address the second method (taking food by force) or emphasize a similarity between the two.
✓ B) Neither…requires the bird to dive into the water. Explicitly states the shared trait ("neither…requires…dive") across both feeding methods — exactly the similarity the student wants to emphasize.
✗ C) …only one is known as kleptoparasitism. Highlights a difference between the two methods (only one has that name), not a similarity.
✗ D) In addition to snatching prey…takes food from other birds by force. Simply lists both methods without pointing out what they have in common.
How SOMATH prepares NYC students for the Digital SAT
SOMATH (School of Math) is a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan, cofounded by Marcelo Ambrozio (Northwestern-trained lead math teacher) and Vivianne Wright (Harvard-trained, also runs MBA House, one of the largest international GMAT/EA prep firms). Vivianne’s track record with standardized tests — hundreds of admits to Harvard Business School, Stanford GSB, Wharton, MIT Sloan, and INSEAD — is the same rigor we bring to SAT prep for high schoolers.
Our Digital SAT track:
- Small-group in-person classes (6–8 students max) at 226 W 79th Street on the Upper West Side. Same room, same teacher, same students, week after week.
- Structured curriculum aligned to the current Digital SAT framework across all four Math domains and all four Reading & Writing domains.
- Bluebook + Desmos drilling. We do not just teach math — we teach how to use the built-in Desmos calculator to solve problems 2–3× faster than by hand.
- Full-length timed Modules 1 and 2 for both Math and R&W with graded free-response feedback. Every student sees their scores tracked week by week.
- Free 30-minute in-person diagnostic evaluation before enrollment. The evaluation identifies exactly which domain needs the most work and produces a written diagnostic within 48 hours.
Ready to raise your SAT Reading & Writing score?
Start with a free 30-minute in-person diagnostic at our Upper West Side classroom. Includes a written diagnostic report within 48 hours — yours to keep whether you enroll or not.
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Small-group Digital SAT Math prep on the Upper West Side. Full Bluebook + Desmos drilling, timed Modules 1 & 2, weekly score tracking, and a free 30-minute in-person diagnostic before enrollment.
Digital SAT FAQ
What is on Module 2 of the Digital SAT Reading & Writing section?
Module 2 is a 32-minute, ~27 scored + 2 pretest question module. Unlike Module 1, Module 2 is stage-adaptive — the difficulty of the questions you see depends on your Module 1 performance. It draws from the same four content domains: Craft & Structure, Information & Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas.
How is the Digital SAT Reading & Writing section scored?
The R&W section is scored from 200 to 800. Module 1 is the same for every student; Module 2 is stage-adaptive — students who performed well on Module 1 are routed to a harder Module 2 with access to the full 800, and students who did not are routed to an easier Module 2 that typically caps in the mid-600s.
How long is the Digital SAT Reading & Writing section?
64 minutes total, split into two 32-minute modules of 27 scored + 2 pretest questions each. Together with the Math section (70 minutes), the full Digital SAT is 2 hours 14 minutes.
What kinds of questions appear on Digital SAT R&W Module 2?
Words in context, function of a sentence, central ideas, command of evidence (textual and quantitative/graph-based), inferences and logical completion, Standard English conventions (punctuation between clauses and sentences, plural/possessive nouns, finite vs. nonfinite verbs, dangling modifiers, colons and supplementary elements), transitions, and rhetorical synthesis using student notes.
What is a good Digital SAT Reading & Writing score?
Depends on target schools. As a general reference: 600 ≈ 75th percentile, 700 ≈ 90th percentile, 750+ ≈ top 5%. For MIT, Stanford, Harvard, and the Ivy League, competitive applicants score 750+ on R&W. For SUNY Binghamton or UNC, 720+. For most CUNY campuses, 550–650.
How is Module 2 different from Module 1?
The question types and skill categories are identical. The difference is adaptivity: Module 1 is fixed for every student, while Module 2's difficulty band (easier or harder) is determined by Module 1 performance. Because you don't know in advance which band you'll see, it's important to drill both easier and harder items across every skill category — exactly what this walkthrough and its companion Module 1 walkthrough are built for.
Where is SOMATH located?
226 West 79th Street, 1st Floor, New York, NY 10024. Upper West Side of Manhattan, between Amsterdam and Broadway, right by the 1 train at 79th and the B/C at 81st.
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