Digital SAT · Reading & Writing · Exam Prep · NYC Test Prep

Digital SAT Practice Test 5 — Module 2: Full Walkthrough of All 33 Reading & Writing Questions with Answers & Explanations

Every question on Digital SAT Practice Test #5, Reading & Writing Module 2, transcribed verbatim, with the official College Board answer key, a plain-English explanation for every choice, theory refreshers on every tested skill, and a free PDF download. Built by SOMATH, the math school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan.

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Looking for the answers, explanations, and full walkthrough of Digital SAT Practice Test 5 — Reading & Writing Module 2? You are in the right place. This is a complete, question-by-question walkthrough of SAT Test #5, R&W Module 2 — every one of the 33 questions transcribed verbatim (passages, prompts, and all four answer choices), with the official College Board answer for each item and a plain-English explanation showing exactly why the correct choice works and why each distractor fails. Theory refreshers on every skill category are included, plus a free PDF download of the entire walkthrough for offline studying.

Module 2 is the second Reading & Writing module on the Digital SAT, and unlike Module 1, it is stage-adaptive: the difficulty of the questions you actually see depends on how you scored on Module 1. Students who did well on Module 1 are routed into a harder version of Module 2 (the “upper module”) that unlocks access to the full 200–800 scale; students who didn’t are routed into an easier version of Module 2 that typically caps out in the mid-600s. This particular practice-test module reflects the harder, upper-module version — the questions here trend more difficult than the Module 1 questions from the same test, which is exactly what you should expect if your goal is a top-band score. Either way, the format is identical: 33 questions, 32 minutes, and the same four content domains as Module 1.

Whether you are a student prepping for the next SAT test date, a parent looking for answer explanations, or a teacher building a review packet, this walkthrough is designed to be the most complete, honest, and student-friendly Digital SAT Reading & Writing walkthrough on the internet. Written by the same team that teaches Digital SAT prep at SOMATH, a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of New York City run by Northwestern-trained cofounder Marcelo Ambrozio and Harvard-trained cofounder Vivianne Wright. SAT Reading & Writing is not SOMATH’s core focus — we are a math school first — but a strong composite score requires both sections, so we built this resource to give our math students (and anyone else studying from this practice test) a rigorous, skill-tagged R&W walkthrough to pair with our math walkthroughs.

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Download SAT Practice Test 5 — Reading & Writing Module 2 (PDF) The full official College Board practice test PDF, including this module. Ready to print.
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How to use this set. Read each passage and question carefully, decide on an answer before you click “Show answer & explanation.” The point is not to read explanations — it is to build the reflex of recognizing which R&W skill each question is testing (vocabulary in context, evidence, transitions, punctuation boundaries, etc.) before you look at the choices. If you get stuck for more than 60–75 seconds, peek at just the correct letter, close the reveal, and try to reconstruct the reasoning on your own.

Answer key at a glance

All 33 answers in one table for quick review:

QAnswerQAnswerQAnswer
1C12D23A
2D13D24C
3A14D25C
4A15D26B
5C16B27C
6C17A28D
7B18A29D
8A19B30A
9A20A31D
10D21C32D
11A22B33A

Theory refresher · What R&W Module 2 tests

The Digital SAT Reading & Writing section has two 32-minute modules, each with 33 questions. Module 2 is stage-adaptive — your Module 1 performance determines whether you see the harder or the easier version of Module 2. Every question is a short, self-contained passage (roughly 25–150 words) followed by one question and four answer choices — there are no multi-question passage sets. The tested skills are identical to Module 1; only the average difficulty of the items shifts depending on which version you are routed into. The four content domains are:

1 · Craft & Structure (roughly 13–15% of the section)

Words in Context. Pick the word or phrase that most precisely fits the logic of the sentence. Watch for signal words like “although,” “however,” and “therefore” that tell you whether the blank should agree with or contrast the surrounding idea.

Text Structure & Purpose. Identify how a text (or a single sentence within it) is organized — e.g., does it move from description to reflection, from criticism to ambition, from a claim to a supporting example?

Cross-Text Connections. Two short texts are given on the same topic. You must determine how the author/idea of one text would most likely respond to, or relate to, a claim made in the other.

2 · Information & Ideas (roughly 26–28% of the section)

Central Ideas & Details. Identify the main point of a text as a whole — not a detail, not a partial truth, but the idea every sentence in the passage supports.

Command of Evidence (Textual). Choose the quotation (or piece of the text) that best supports, illustrates, or exemplifies a given claim.

Command of Evidence (Quantitative). Use a table or graph to complete a statement logically — the correct choice must be numerically accurate and serve the logical role the sentence needs (e.g., completing a pattern or contrast).

Inferences. Draw the most logically supported conclusion from the given information — usually phrased as which finding would most support a hypothesis, or what a passage most strongly suggests.

3 · Standard English Conventions (roughly 11–15% of the section)

Boundaries. Punctuation between and within sentences — periods, semicolons, commas, colons, and dashes. A period or semicolon joins two independent clauses; a comma alone between two independent clauses is a comma splice (incorrect); no punctuation at all between two independent clauses is a run-on (incorrect).

Form, Structure & Sense. Grammar and usage — subject-verb agreement, verb tense consistency, pronoun-antecedent agreement, plural vs. possessive nouns, and modifier placement (a modifying phrase must sit next to the noun it logically describes, or you get a dangling modifier).

4 · Expression of Ideas (roughly 12–19% of the section)

Transitions. Choose the logical connector (however, therefore, in addition, finally, etc.) that correctly signals the relationship between two ideas — contrast, cause-and-effect, addition, or sequence/conclusion.

Rhetorical Synthesis. You are given bulleted notes and a specific rhetorical goal (e.g., “describe X to an audience unfamiliar with Y” or “emphasize a difference between X and Y”). Pick the single sentence that best accomplishes that exact goal using only the given notes — accuracy alone isn’t enough; the sentence must match the stated purpose.

Every question below is transcribed verbatim from College Board’s Practice Test 5 booklet. Try each one on your own, then click Show answer & explanation to see the correct answer and a plain-English explanation for every choice, based on the official College Board answer explanations.

Section 1 · Craft & Structure

Words in Context, Text Structure & Purpose, and Cross-Text Connections — the questions that open the module.

Question 1 · Words in Context

The following text is adapted from Elizabeth von Arnim’s 1922 novel The Enchanted April. Mrs. Wilkins and her friend Rose are traveling in Italy.

“I’m going to have one of these gorgeous oranges,” said Mrs. Wilkins, staying where she was and reaching across to a black bowl piled with them. “Rose, how can you resist them. Look—have this one. Do have this beauty—” And she held out a big one.

As used in the text, what does the phrase “reaching across to” most nearly mean?

  • A) Joining with
  • B) Gaining on
  • C) Stretching toward
  • D) Arriving at

Correct answer: C) Stretching toward

✗ A) Joining with
“Joining with” would mean becoming attached to the bowl, which makes no sense here — she’s reaching for a piece of fruit, not merging with the bowl.

✗ B) Gaining on
“Gaining on” means catching up to something in a chase or competition. The bowl isn’t moving and there’s no race; she’s simply extending her arm toward it.

✓ C) Stretching toward
“Stretching toward” fits perfectly — Mrs. Wilkins “stays where she was” while extending her arm across to the bowl of oranges, then holds one out to Rose. That’s a physical reach, not a change of location.

✗ D) Arriving at
“Arriving at” is contradicted directly by the text, which says she is “staying where she was” — she never moves toward or arrives at the bowl at all.

Question 2 · Words in Context

A team of paleontologists has found a rich fossil deposit near Gulgong, Australia. The fossils are so well preserved that the team has been able to _______ detailed information about the life forms that left them behind, such as color patterns and how they interacted with other species.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • A) occupy
  • B) hoard
  • C) reserve
  • D) obtain

Correct answer: D) obtain

✗ A) occupy
“Occupy” means to inhabit or fill a space, which doesn’t fit information at all; you don’t occupy facts.

✗ B) hoard
“Hoard” means to stockpile selfishly. There’s no suggestion the team is hiding or accumulating information rather than simply gathering it from the fossils.

✗ C) reserve
“Reserve” means to set aside for later use. The text is about extracting information now, not withholding it for future use.

✓ D) obtain
“Obtain” means to gain or acquire. Because the fossils are so well preserved, the team has been able to gain detailed information — such as color patterns — directly from them.

Question 3 · Words in Context

According to a team of neuroeconomists from the University of Zurich, ease of decision making may be linked to communication between two brain regions, the prefrontal cortex and the parietal cortex. Individuals tend to be more decisive if the information flow between the regions is intensified, whereas they make choices more slowly when information flow is _______.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • A) reduced
  • B) evaluated
  • C) determined
  • D) acquired

Correct answer: A) reduced

✓ A) reduced
“Reduced” means decreased. The sentence sets up a contrast with “intensified”: people decide faster when information flow is strengthened, and more slowly when it is instead decreased.

✗ B) evaluated
“Evaluated” means assessed. The passage is about the rate of information flow between brain regions, not about someone judging or assessing that information.

✗ C) determined
“Determined” means influenced or decided. This doesn’t describe a decrease in flow, which is what the contrast with “intensified” requires.

✗ D) acquired
“Acquired” means obtained. The sentence needs a word that is the opposite of “intensified,” and acquired doesn’t signal a decrease in anything.

Question 4 · Words in Context

The War of 1812 has _______ place in historical memory in Britain, partly because it is overshadowed by the much larger concurrent conflict against Napoleonic France and partly because it essentially maintained the geopolitical status quo for Britain: the country neither gained nor lost significant territory or position as a result of its participation in the war.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • A) a tenuous
  • B) an enduring
  • C) a contentious
  • D) a conspicuous

Correct answer: A) a tenuous

✓ A) a tenuous
“Tenuous” means weak or uncertain. Being overshadowed by a bigger war and producing no real territorial change both point to the War of 1812 having a shaky, uncertain foothold in British historical memory.

✗ B) an enduring
“Enduring” means lasting. This contradicts the point of the sentence, which is that the war is overshadowed and easily forgotten, not that its memory has persisted strongly.

✗ C) a contentious
“Contentious” means causing disagreement. Nothing in the text suggests people argue about the war’s memory; the issue is that it’s largely overlooked.

✗ D) a conspicuous
“Conspicuous” means easily noticed. This is the opposite of being overshadowed — the text explains why the war fades into the background, not why it stands out.

Question 5 · Words in Context

Claims about the original significance of Minoan bull-leaping rituals—depicted in paintings and sculptures from the second millennium BCE—are difficult to successfully _______. We know so little about the people archaeologists call the Minoans that assertions about what bull-leaping meant to them will almost inevitably rely on significant speculation and guesswork.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?

  • A) imagine
  • B) summarize
  • C) defend
  • D) adjust

Correct answer: C) defend

✗ A) imagine
“Imagine” means to picture mentally. The text isn’t about visualizing what the rituals looked like; it’s about the difficulty of supporting claims regarding their meaning.

✗ B) summarize
“Summarize” means to recap briefly. The problem described isn’t condensing information, it’s a lack of evidence to justify any claim in the first place.

✓ C) defend
“Defend” means to support against argument. Because so little is known about the Minoans, any claim about the rituals’ meaning rests on speculation and is therefore hard to defend, or back up, convincingly.

✗ D) adjust
“Adjust” means to modify or correct. The text never discusses revising a claim based on new evidence; it discusses the basic difficulty of ever supporting one.

Question 6 · Text Structure & Purpose

The following text is adapted from Jerome K. Jerome’s 1889 novel Three Men in a Boat (To Say Nothing of the Dog). The narrator is traveling by boat with Harris and another friend.

[Harris] told us anecdotes of how he had gone across the [English] Channel when it was so rough that the passengers had to be tied into their [beds], and he and the captain were the only two living souls on board who were not ill. Sometimes it was he and the second mate who were not ill; but it was generally he and one other man. If not he and another man, then it was he by himself.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • A) It indicates the reason for Harris’s eagerness to resume traveling.
  • B) It hints at Harris’s feeling that during an earlier boat trip, others didn’t include him in activities.
  • C) It emphasizes that Harris always boasts about his own constitution when speaking of a previous boat trip.
  • D) It reveals that although Harris claims to prefer solitary activities when traveling, he actually enjoys having company.

Correct answer: C) It emphasizes that Harris always boasts about his own constitution when speaking of a previous boat trip.

✗ A) It indicates the reason for Harris’s eagerness to resume traveling.
Nothing in the passage connects this anecdote to any eagerness on Harris’s part to travel again; it’s purely about how his story about the past keeps changing.

✗ B) It hints at Harris’s feeling that during an earlier boat trip, others didn’t include him in activities.
The sentence is about Harris shrinking the number of people who avoided seasickness in his story, not about him feeling excluded by others during the trip.

✓ C) It emphasizes that Harris always boasts about his own constitution when speaking of a previous boat trip.
The underlined sentence shows the number of unaffected passengers in Harris’s story steadily shrinking — from him and the captain, to him and one other, to just himself — a comic exaggeration that highlights Harris repeatedly bragging about his own hardiness whenever he retells this story.

✗ D) It reveals that although Harris claims to prefer solitary activities when traveling, he actually enjoys having company.
There is no indication in the text that Harris prefers solitude generally or that he secretly enjoys company; the humor is entirely about his exaggerated, shifting claims of endurance.

Question 7 · Text Structure & Purpose

Several studies have found negligible electoral consequences for governments that impose fiscal austerity measures, yet some European governments recently suffered electorally due to their austerity programs. Evelyne Huebscher and colleagues attribute this incongruity to governments’ tendency—not followed in the recent European cases—to implement austerity programs strategically to avoid electoral costs (e.g., setting spending cuts to take effect only after the next election), which has obscured the inherent political risks of austerity measures in the election data scholars have examined.

Which choice best describes the function of the underlined sentence in the text as a whole?

  • A) It explains a discrepancy between what has been observed in study settings and what has been observed in real-world settings that the text goes on to assert is attributable to the studies not using real-world data.
  • B) It identifies a conflict between research findings and recent events that the text goes on to suggest is a consequence of a complicating factor in the data used to generate those findings.
  • C) It presents a long-standing divergence in research findings that the text goes on to say is due to different groups of researchers using data that derive from different electoral circumstances.
  • D) It describes a recent exception to a general pattern in research findings that the text goes on to explain is a result of researchers underestimating the significance of inconsistencies in the data they’ve analyzed.

Correct answer: B) It identifies a conflict between research findings and recent events that the text goes on to suggest is a consequence of a complicating factor in the data used to generate those findings.

✗ A) It explains a discrepancy between what has been observed in study settings and what has been observed in real-world settings that the text goes on to assert is attributable to the studies not using real-world data.
The issue isn’t studies-versus-real-world data; the text never says the earlier studies failed to use real elections. It says those elections behaved differently because governments there used strategic timing that the recent cases didn’t.

✓ B) It identifies a conflict between research findings and recent events that the text goes on to suggest is a consequence of a complicating factor in the data used to generate those findings.
The underlined sentence sets up a conflict — studies say austerity has little electoral cost, yet recent European governments suffered electorally — and the text goes on to attribute this to a complicating factor: past data mostly came from governments that timed cuts strategically to avoid costs, which masked the real political risk. That’s a conflict explained by a data-generation quirk, matching choice B exactly.

✗ C) It presents a long-standing divergence in research findings that the text goes on to say is due to different groups of researchers using data that derive from different electoral circumstances.
The text doesn’t describe a “long-standing divergence” between separate groups of researchers; it describes one body of research findings clashing with one set of recent events.

✗ D) It describes a recent exception to a general pattern in research findings that the text goes on to explain is a result of researchers underestimating the significance of inconsistencies in the data they’ve analyzed.
The text never claims researchers underestimated inconsistencies in their data; it says the underlying data itself reflected a governmental strategy that obscured austerity’s true political risk.

Question 8 · Cross-Text Connections

Text 1
Graphic novels are increasingly popular in bookstores and libraries, but they shouldn’t be classified as literature. By definition, literature tells a story or conveys meaning through language only; graphic novels tell stories through illustrations and use language only sparingly, in captions and dialogue. Graphic novels are experienced as series of images and not as language, making them more similar to film than to literature.

Text 2
Graphic novels present their stories through both language and images. Without captions and dialogue, readers would be unable to understand what is depicted in the illustrations: the story results from the interaction of text and image. Moreover, Alison Bechdel’s Fun Home and many other graphic novels feature text that is as beautifully written as the prose found in many standard novels. Therefore, graphic novels qualify as literary texts.

Based on the texts, how would the author of Text 2 most likely respond to the overall argument presented in Text 1?

  • A) By asserting that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes
  • B) By acknowledging that the author of Text 1 has identified a flaw that is common to all graphic novels
  • C) By suggesting that the story lines of certain graphic novels are more difficult to understand than the author of Text 1 claims
  • D) By agreeing with the author of Text 1 that most graphic novels aren’t as well crafted as most literary works are

Correct answer: A) By asserting that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes

✓ A) By asserting that language plays a more important role in graphic novels than the author of Text 1 recognizes
Text 1 says graphic novels use language “only sparingly” and are experienced mainly as images. Text 2 directly counters this, arguing captions and dialogue are essential to understanding the story and that graphic-novel writing can be as accomplished as standard prose — i.e., language matters far more than Text 1 gives it credit for.

✗ B) By acknowledging that the author of Text 1 has identified a flaw that is common to all graphic novels
Text 2 never agrees that Text 1 has identified a real flaw; it disputes Text 1’s core premise that language is minor in graphic novels.

✗ C) By suggesting that the story lines of certain graphic novels are more difficult to understand than the author of Text 1 claims
Text 2 never discusses story lines being hard to understand; it argues the opposite, that text and image work together to make the story clear.

✗ D) By agreeing with the author of Text 1 that most graphic novels aren’t as well crafted as most literary works are
Text 2 argues graphic novels can be as well-written as standard novels (citing Fun Home), the opposite of agreeing they’re less well-crafted.

Section 2 · Information & Ideas

Central Ideas & Details, Command of Evidence (Textual and Quantitative), and Inferences.

Question 9 · Central Ideas & Details

The following text is adapted from Ann Petry’s 1946 novel The Street. Lutie lives in an apartment in Harlem, New York.

The glow from the sunset was making the street radiant. The street is nice in this light, [Lutie] thought. It was swarming with children who were playing ball and darting back and forth across the sidewalk in complicated games of tag. Girls were skipping double dutch rope, going tirelessly through the exact center of a pair of ropes, jumping first on one foot and then the other.

Which choice best describes what is happening in the text?

  • A) Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.
  • B) Lutie is annoyed by the noise of children playing games on her street.
  • C) Lutie is puzzled by the rules of certain children’s games.
  • D) Lutie is spending time alone in her apartment because she doesn’t want to interact with her neighbors.

Correct answer: A) Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.

✓ A) Lutie is observing the appearance of the street at a particular time of day and the events occurring on it.
Lutie notices the sunset’s glow making the street look nice, then watches children playing ball, tag, and jumping rope — a straightforward observation of the street’s appearance at that moment and the activity happening on it.

✗ B) Lutie is annoyed by the noise of children playing games on her street.
The text says Lutie thinks the street looks “nice” in this light — nothing suggests she finds the children’s noise annoying.

✗ C) Lutie is puzzled by the rules of certain children’s games.
The text describes the games clearly (ball, tag, double dutch) without any hint that Lutie is confused by their rules.

✗ D) Lutie is spending time alone in her apartment because she doesn’t want to interact with her neighbors.
The passage places Lutie watching the street, not isolated indoors avoiding her neighbors; there’s no mention of her being alone in an apartment here.

Question 10 · Central Ideas & Details

Since its completion in 2014, Bosco Verticale (Vertical Forest)—a pair of residential towers in Milan, Italy, covered by vegetation—has become a striking symbol of environmental sustainability in architecture. Stefano Boeri intended his design, which features balconies that are home to hundreds of trees, to serve as a model for promoting urban biodiversity. However, the concept has faced skepticism: critics note that although the trees used in Bosco Verticale were specifically cultivated for the project, it’s too early to tell if they can thrive in this unusual setting.

According to the text, why are some critics skeptical of the concept behind Bosco Verticale?

  • A) Some essential aspects of Bosco Verticale’s design are difficult to adapt to locations other than Milan.
  • B) The plant life on Bosco Verticale ended up being less varied than Boeri had envisioned it would be.
  • C) The construction of Bosco Verticale was no less environmentally damaging than the construction of more conventional buildings is.
  • D) It is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design.

Correct answer: D) It is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design.

✗ A) Some essential aspects of Bosco Verticale’s design are difficult to adapt to locations other than Milan.
The text never discusses adapting the design to cities other than Milan; the concern is whether the current trees can survive where they already are.

✗ B) The plant life on Bosco Verticale ended up being less varied than Boeri had envisioned it would be.
There’s no comparison in the text between the variety Boeri wanted and what was actually planted; the critique is about survival, not diversity of species.

✗ C) The construction of Bosco Verticale was no less environmentally damaging than the construction of more conventional buildings is.
The text says nothing about the environmental impact of constructing the towers themselves, only about whether the vegetation can thrive after the fact.

✓ D) It is unclear whether Bosco Verticale can support the plant life included in its design.
The text says directly that critics doubt whether the specially cultivated trees “can thrive in this unusual setting” because it’s “too early to tell” — that is exactly the uncertainty this choice describes.

Question 11 · Central Ideas & Details

Many literary theorists distinguish between fabula, a narrative’s content, and syuzhet, a narrative’s arrangement and presentation of events. In the film The Godfather Part II, the fabula is the story of the Corleone family, and the syuzhet is the presentation of the story as it alternates between two timelines in 1901 and 1958. But literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin maintained that fabula and syuzhet are insufficient to completely describe a narrative—he held that systematic categorizations of artistic phenomena discount the subtle way in which meaning is created by interactions between the artist, the work, and the audience.

Which choice best states the main idea of the text?

  • A) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.
  • B) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin claimed that meaning is not inherent in a narrative but is created when an audience encounters a narrative so that narratives are interpreted differently by different people.
  • C) The storytelling methods used in The Godfather Part II may seem unusually complicated, but they can be easily understood when two concepts from literary theory are utilized.
  • D) Narratives that are told out of chronological order are more difficult for audiences to understand than are narratives presented chronologically.

Correct answer: A) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.

✓ A) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin argued that there are important characteristics of narratives that are not fully encompassed by two concepts that other theorists have used to analyze narratives.
The text introduces fabula and syuzhet as tools other theorists use, illustrates them with The Godfather Part II, then pivots to Bakhtin’s core claim that these two concepts alone can’t fully capture a narrative — which is precisely the main idea this choice states.

✗ B) Literary theorist Mikhail Bakhtin claimed that meaning is not inherent in a narrative but is created when an audience encounters a narrative so that narratives are interpreted differently by different people.
This overstates Bakhtin’s claim: the text says meaning arises from interactions between artist, work, and audience together, not solely from the audience’s encounter with the text, and it never discusses differing individual interpretations.

✗ C) The storytelling methods used in The Godfather Part II may seem unusually complicated, but they can be easily understood when two concepts from literary theory are utilized.
The film is used only to illustrate fabula and syuzhet; the text’s point is Bakhtin’s critique of those concepts, not that the film becomes “easily understood” once you apply them.

✗ D) Narratives that are told out of chronological order are more difficult for audiences to understand than are narratives presented chronologically.
The text never compares how difficult chronological versus non-chronological narratives are to understand; it uses the film only to define two theoretical terms before critiquing them.

Question 12 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)

See figure (“Total Science Research Submissions by Topic, 2016–2019”) in the original College Board PDF above.

A student is researching the trends in the topics submitted to a national science fair for high school students. The graph shows the number of submissions by topic that were made each year. Based on the data in the graph, the student claims that there were more medicine and health research topics submitted in 2019 than in any other year.

Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to support the underlined claim?

  • A) In 2016, the number of cellular and molecular biology topic submissions was the same as the number of animal science topic submissions.
  • B) In 2019, there were more physics and space science topic submissions than there were medicine and health topic submissions.
  • C) The lowest number of animal science topic submissions in a year was approximately 95 in 2016.
  • D) The highest number of medicine and health topic submissions during the period shown is approximately 285 in 2019.

Correct answer: D) The highest number of medicine and health topic submissions during the period shown is approximately 285 in 2019.

✗ A) In 2016, the number of cellular and molecular biology topic submissions was the same as the number of animal science topic submissions.
This compares two unrelated categories (cellular/molecular biology and animal science) in 2016 — it says nothing about medicine and health in 2019, so it can’t support the claim.

✗ B) In 2019, there were more physics and space science topic submissions than there were medicine and health topic submissions.
This compares physics/space science to medicine and health in 2019, which doesn’t address whether 2019 was medicine and health’s highest year — and it also misreads the graph, since medicine and health submissions were higher than physics and space science in 2019.

✗ C) The lowest number of animal science topic submissions in a year was approximately 95 in 2016.
This is about the lowest point for a completely different category (animal science), not about medicine and health reaching its peak in 2019.

✓ D) The highest number of medicine and health topic submissions during the period shown is approximately 285 in 2019.
The graph shows medicine and health submissions staying below roughly 250 in 2016, 2017, and 2018, then rising to approximately 285 in 2019 — the highest point on that line across the whole period, which is exactly what the underlined claim needs.

Question 13 · Command of Evidence (Textual)

Fish whose DNA has been modified to include genetic material from other species are known as transgenic. Some transgenic fish have genes from jellyfish that result in fluorescence (that is, they glow in the dark). Although these fish were initially engineered for research purposes in the 1990s, they were sold as pets in the 2000s and can now be found in the wild in creeks in Brazil. A student in a biology seminar who is writing a paper on these fish asserts that their escape from Brazilian fish farms into the wild may have significant negative long-term ecological effects.

Which quotation from a researcher would best support the student’s assertion?

  • A) “In one site in the wild where transgenic fish were observed, females outnumbered males, while in another the numbers of females and males were equivalent.”
  • B) “Though some presence of transgenic fish in the wild has been recorded, there are insufficient studies of the impact of those fish on the ecosystems into which they are introduced.”
  • C) “The ecosystems into which transgenic fish are known to have been introduced may represent a subset of the ecosystems into which the fish have actually been introduced.”
  • D) “Through interbreeding, transgenic fish might introduce the trait of fluorescence into wild fish populations, making those populations more vulnerable to predators.”

Correct answer: D) “Through interbreeding, transgenic fish might introduce the trait of fluorescence into wild fish populations, making those populations more vulnerable to predators.”

✗ A) “In one site in the wild where transgenic fish were observed, females outnumbered males, while in another the numbers of females and males were equivalent.”
This only compares ratios of females to males at two sites; it doesn’t mention any negative or long-term ecological consequence of the fish’s presence.

✗ B) “Though some presence of transgenic fish in the wild has been recorded, there are insufficient studies of the impact of those fish on the ecosystems into which they are introduced.”
This says more research is needed, which suggests uncertainty about effects rather than actually supporting the claim that negative effects will occur.

✗ C) “The ecosystems into which transgenic fish are known to have been introduced may represent a subset of the ecosystems into which the fish have actually been introduced.”
This is about how many ecosystems might contain transgenic fish, not about whether their presence there causes ecological harm.

✓ D) “Through interbreeding, transgenic fish might introduce the trait of fluorescence into wild fish populations, making those populations more vulnerable to predators.”
This quotation gives a concrete mechanism for lasting ecological harm: interbreeding could spread fluorescence into wild fish, making them easier for predators to spot and catch — exactly the kind of negative, long-term ecological effect the student is asserting.

Question 14 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)

See figure (“Modeled Radial Growth of Sugar Maple Trees”) in the original College Board PDF above.

Inés Ibáñez and colleagues studied a forest site in which some sugar maple trees receive periodic fertilization with nitrogen to mimic the broader trend of increasing anthropogenic nitrogen deposition in soil. Ibáñez and colleagues modeled the radial growth of the trees with and without nitrogen fertilization under three different climate scenarios (the current climate, moderate change, and extreme change). Although they found that climate change would negatively affect growth, they concluded that anthropogenic nitrogen deposition could more than offset that effect provided that change is moderate rather than extreme.

Which choice best describes data from the graph that support Ibáñez and colleagues’ conclusion?

  • A) Growth with nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth with nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change.
  • B) Growth without nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.
  • C) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change.
  • D) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under the current climate, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.

Correct answer: D) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under the current climate, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.

✗ A) Growth with nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth with nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change.
This compares two nitrogen-fertilized bars and one non-fertilized bar in a way that doesn’t connect back to the current, unfertilized baseline the conclusion depends on.

✗ B) Growth without nitrogen under the current climate exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.
This describes only the without-nitrogen bars declining as climate change intensifies, which shows climate change hurts growth but says nothing about nitrogen offsetting that harm.

✗ C) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under moderate change, but the latter exceeded growth without nitrogen under extreme change.
This shows nitrogen helping under moderate change relative to no nitrogen at the same moderate-change level, and then a decline into extreme change — but it never establishes that nitrogen brings moderate-change growth back up to (or past) the current, unfertilized baseline, which is the heart of the researchers’ claim.

✓ D) Growth with nitrogen under moderate change exceeded growth without nitrogen under the current climate, but the latter exceeded growth with nitrogen under extreme change.
The bar graph shows radial growth without nitrogen at roughly 0.16 cm under current conditions, while growth with nitrogen under moderate change reaches about 0.18 cm — higher than the current-climate baseline — and that current-climate figure (0.16 cm) in turn beats growth with nitrogen under extreme change (about 0.06 cm). This pattern shows nitrogen fully offsetting moderate climate change while extreme change overwhelms it, matching the researchers’ conclusion.

Question 15 · Command of Evidence (Textual)

“Poetry” is a 1919 poem by Marianne Moore. The poem highlights an ambivalence toward poetry as the speaker acknowledges its merits while also expressing a sense of displeasure, writing _______

“Reading [poetry], however, with a perfect contempt for it, one discovers that there is init after all, a place for the genuine.”

Which quotation from “Poetry” most effectively illustrates the claim?

  • A) “nor is it valid / to discriminate against ‘business documents and / school-books’; all these phenomena are important.”
  • B) “One must make a distinction / however: when dragged into prominence by half poets, the result is not / poetry”
  • C) “when [poems] become so derivative as to become unintelligible, the / same thing may be said for all of us—that we / do not admire what / we cannot understand.”
  • D) “Reading [poetry], however, with a perfect contempt for it, one discovers that there is in / it after all, a place for the genuine.”

Correct answer: D) “Reading [poetry], however, with a perfect contempt for it, one discovers that there is in / it after all, a place for the genuine.”

✗ A) “nor is it valid / to discriminate against ‘business documents and / school-books’; all these phenomena are important.”
This is about not discriminating against certain kinds of writing; it expresses neither displeasure nor a mixed attitude toward poetry.

✗ B) “One must make a distinction / however: when dragged into prominence by half poets, the result is not / poetry”
This criticizes “half poets” specifically, but it offers only a negative judgment, with no accompanying acknowledgment of poetry’s merit needed to show ambivalence.

✗ C) “when [poems] become so derivative as to become unintelligible, the / same thing may be said for all of us—that we / do not admire what / we cannot understand.”
This describes a negative reaction to unintelligible, overly derivative poems; like B, it lacks any contrasting positive view that would make the attitude ambivalent rather than simply critical.

✓ D) “Reading [poetry], however, with a perfect contempt for it, one discovers that there is in / it after all, a place for the genuine.”
This quotation pairs “a perfect contempt” — clear displeasure — with the discovery that poetry still holds “a place for the genuine,” a real merit. Holding both a negative and a positive attitude toward the same thing at once is the definition of ambivalence, so this best illustrates the claim.

Question 16 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)

See figure (“Simulated Change in Annual Aquifer Input and Irrigation Output if Precipitation Concentration Increases as Climate Models Predict”) in the original College Board PDF above.

Some climate models for the western United States predict that while total annual precipitation may remain unchanged from the present level, precipitation will become concentrated into fewer but more intense rain and snow events. University of Texas climate scientist Geeta Persad and her colleagues simulated how the amount of water entering aquifers and the amount being used for irrigation purposes would change if this were to occur. Persad and her colleagues concluded that concentration of precipitation into fewer events would result in a higher number of dry days, triggering more irrigation, but that this change in irrigation output is highly sensitive to the baseline concentration of precipitation that currently exists in an area.

Which choice best describes data from the table that support Persad and her colleagues’ conclusion?

  • A) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, the amount of water being used for irrigation will increase 0.4% for surface water and 0.9% for groundwater, whereas the amount of water entering aquifers will increase 11.0% if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.
  • B) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will increase only slightly, whereas it will increase 9.0% for surface water and 7.9% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.
  • C) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, the amount of water entering aquifers will increase 4.9%, while the amount used for irrigation will increase 0.4% for surface water and 0.9% for groundwater.
  • D) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will decline by a small amount, whereas it will increase 11.0% for surface water and 9.0% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.

Correct answer: B) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will increase only slightly, whereas it will increase 9.0% for surface water and 7.9% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.

✗ A) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, the amount of water being used for irrigation will increase 0.4% for surface water and 0.9% for groundwater, whereas the amount of water entering aquifers will increase 11.0% if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.
This mixes irrigation-water figures from one row with aquifer-input figures from the other row, comparing two different variables (irrigation vs. aquifer input) instead of showing how irrigation output alone shifts with baseline concentration.

✓ B) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will increase only slightly, whereas it will increase 9.0% for surface water and 7.9% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.
The table shows that when baseline precipitation is already somewhat concentrated, irrigation water use rises only slightly (0.4% surface, 0.9% groundwater), but when baseline precipitation is evenly distributed, irrigation use jumps much more sharply (9.0% surface, 7.9% groundwater). That large gap between the two baseline scenarios is exactly the “highly sensitive to baseline concentration” pattern the conclusion describes.

✗ C) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, the amount of water entering aquifers will increase 4.9%, while the amount used for irrigation will increase 0.4% for surface water and 0.9% for groundwater.
This compares aquifer input to irrigation output within the same somewhat-concentrated row rather than comparing irrigation output across the two different baseline scenarios, so it doesn’t show the sensitivity the conclusion is about.

✗ D) If baseline precipitation is somewhat concentrated, water use for irrigation will decline by a small amount, whereas it will increase 11.0% for surface water and 9.0% for groundwater if baseline precipitation is evenly distributed.
This incorrectly claims irrigation use would decline under somewhat-concentrated baseline precipitation, when the table actually shows a small increase, not a decrease.

Question 17 · Inferences

In dialects of English spoken in Scotland, the “r” sound is strongly emphasized when it appears at the end of syllables (as in “car”) or before other consonant sounds (as in “bird”). English dialects of the Upland South, a region stretching from Oklahoma to western Virginia, place similar emphasis on “r” at the ends of syllables and before other consonant sounds. Historical records show that the Upland South was colonized largely by people whose ancestors came from Scotland. Thus, linguists have concluded that _______

Which choice most logically completes the text?

  • A) the English dialects spoken in the Upland South acquired their emphasis on the “r” sound from dialects spoken in Scotland.
  • B) emphasis on the “r” sound will eventually spread from English dialects spoken in the Upland South to dialects spoken elsewhere.
  • C) the English dialects spoken in Scotland were influenced by dialects spoken in the Upland South.
  • D) people from Scotland abandoned their emphasis on the “r” sound after relocating to the Upland South.

Correct answer: A) the English dialects spoken in the Upland South acquired their emphasis on the “r” sound from dialects spoken in Scotland.

✓ A) the English dialects spoken in the Upland South acquired their emphasis on the “r” sound from dialects spoken in Scotland.
Both regions share the same distinctive “r” pattern, and the Upland South was settled largely by people of Scottish ancestry. The logical conclusion is that the Upland South dialects inherited this feature from the dialects their Scottish-descended settlers originally spoke.

✗ B) emphasis on the “r” sound will eventually spread from English dialects spoken in the Upland South to dialects spoken elsewhere.
The text gives no evidence about future spread of the feature to other dialects; it only explains a shared feature's likely historical origin.

✗ C) the English dialects spoken in Scotland were influenced by dialects spoken in the Upland South.
This reverses the direction of influence implied by the colonization timeline — Scottish settlers arrived in the Upland South, not the other way around, so Scottish dialects influencing the Upland South is what's supported, not the reverse.

✗ D) people from Scotland abandoned their emphasis on the “r” sound after relocating to the Upland South.
This contradicts the text, which states that Upland South dialects still place the same emphasis on the “r” sound — the feature wasn’t abandoned, it persisted.

Section 3 · Standard English Conventions

Boundaries (punctuation) and Form, Structure & Sense (grammar/usage).

Question 18 · Standard English Conventions

How did whales, once no bigger than seals, evolve to become the largest animals on Earth? Brazilian biologist Mariana Nery believes the answer might be found in whales’ DNA. In January 2023, Nery and her colleagues _______ a study showing changes over time in four whale genes associated with body size.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) published
  • B) publishing
  • C) having published
  • D) to publish

Correct answer: A) published

✓ A) published
The sentence needs a finite (tensed) main verb to complete its subject, “Nery and her colleagues.” “Published” is a simple past-tense verb that correctly serves as the sentence’s main action.

✗ B) publishing
“Publishing” is a nonfinite participle and cannot function alone as the sentence’s main verb, leaving the sentence without a complete predicate.

✗ C) having published
“Having published” is also a nonfinite form; it can’t stand as the sentence’s only verb and leaves the clause incomplete.

✗ D) to publish
“To publish” is an infinitive, not a finite verb, so it cannot serve as the main verb the sentence requires.

Question 19 · Standard English Conventions

A harpsichord may look just like a piano, but the difference between the two instruments is easy to hear. When a harpsichord’s keys are pressed, the strings inside the _______ are plucked, not struck.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) instrument:
  • B) instrument
  • C) instrument—
  • D) instrument,

Correct answer: B) instrument

✗ A) instrument:
A colon here would incorrectly separate the subject from the verb that completes it; colons introduce explanations or lists, not a break mid-subject.

✓ B) instrument
The subject “the strings inside the instrument” is immediately followed by its verb “are plucked” — no punctuation belongs between a subject and its verb.

✗ C) instrument—
A dash would just as wrongly interrupt the subject-verb connection, creating an unnecessary and ungrammatical pause.

✗ D) instrument,
A comma between the subject and its verb creates the same error — there is no reason to separate “instrument” from “are plucked” here.

Question 20 · Standard English Conventions

When they were first introduced to western Europe from Byzantium in the eleventh century, table forks were met with much resistance. The Bishop of Ostia, St. Peter Damian, condemned the eating utensils because he considered _______ dangerous and unnecessary luxury items.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) them
  • B) this
  • C) that
  • D) it

Correct answer: A) them

✓ A) them
The plural pronoun “them” correctly agrees in number with its plural antecedent, “the eating utensils” (table forks).

✗ B) this
“This” is singular and does not agree with the plural antecedent “utensils.”

✗ C) that
“That” is likewise singular and mismatches the plural noun it refers back to.

✗ D) it
“It” is also singular and cannot correctly stand in for the plural “utensils.”

Question 21 · Standard English Conventions

Julia Alvarez’s 1994 novel In the Time of the Butterflies, a fictionalized account of the lives of the Mirabal _______ can serve as a starting point for those wanting to explore how the rule of dictator Rafael Trujillo has been represented in Dominican American literature.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) sisters, and
  • B) sisters and
  • C) sisters,
  • D) sisters

Correct answer: C) sisters,

✗ A) sisters, and
Adding “and” here incorrectly treats the description as part of a list or compound structure rather than as a self-contained supplementary phrase that needs to be closed off with a comma.

✗ B) sisters and
Without any comma, the supplementary phrase runs directly into the rest of the sentence, failing to mark where the description ends.

✓ C) sisters,
The phrase “a fictionalized account of the lives of the Mirabal sisters” is a supplementary description of the novel and needs a comma on each side. The comma after “Butterflies” is already given, so the matching comma belongs right after “sisters.”

✗ D) sisters
Omitting the comma entirely leaves the boundary between the description and the main clause unmarked, which is ungrammatical for this kind of supplementary element.

Question 22 · Standard English Conventions

On March 23, 2021, a gust of wind wreaked havoc on global trade. Ever Given, an international shipping container vessel, became lodged in Egypt’s Suez Canal, a major shipping route between Europe and Asia. The vessel took six days to _______ it’s as heavy as two thousand blue whales when fully loaded.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) dislodge in part due to its sheer size,
  • B) dislodge, in part due to its sheer size:
  • C) dislodge, in part due to its sheer size,
  • D) dislodge, in part, due to its sheer size

Correct answer: B) dislodge, in part due to its sheer size:

✗ A) dislodge in part due to its sheer size,
Using a comma alone to join “...size” and “it’s...loaded” — two independent clauses — creates a comma splice, and it also fails to set off the supplementary phrase with an opening comma.

✓ B) dislodge, in part due to its sheer size:
A comma correctly separates the main clause (“The vessel took six days to dislodge”) from the supplementary detail (“in part due to its sheer size”), and the colon that follows properly introduces the second main clause explaining exactly how large the ship is.

✗ C) dislodge, in part due to its sheer size,
This also creates a comma splice between the two main clauses; a comma can’t join two independent clauses this way.

✗ D) dislodge, in part, due to its sheer size
This fuses the two main clauses with no punctuation or conjunction at all between them, producing a run-on sentence.

Question 23 · Standard English Conventions

Fans of the film Moana (2016) may not know that the deep and humorous voice behind the _______ belongs to comedian, actor, and musician Jemaine Clement. The versatile performer has appeared in everything from television commercials to action movies, but voice acting, specifically, has become a notable part of his career.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) character Tamatoa the crab
  • B) character Tamatoa the crab,
  • C) character: Tamatoa the crab,
  • D) character, Tamatoa the crab

Correct answer: A) character Tamatoa the crab

✓ A) character Tamatoa the crab
“Tamatoa the crab” is a restrictive appositive that identifies exactly which character is meant, so no punctuation is needed; the phrase also sits directly before the verb “belongs,” which likewise takes no punctuation before it.

✗ B) character Tamatoa the crab,
The trailing comma incorrectly breaks the noun phrase away from the verb “belongs” that it needs to connect to directly.

✗ C) character: Tamatoa the crab,
The colon incorrectly suggests a full explanatory phrase is being introduced, and the added comma is equally unnecessary since the appositive is essential, not supplementary.

✗ D) character, Tamatoa the crab
The comma right after “character” wrongly separates the essential identifying phrase “Tamatoa the crab” from the noun it identifies.

Question 24 · Standard English Conventions

In her 1983 book The Managed Heart: Commercialization of Human Feeling, sociologist Arlie Russell Hochschild first explored at length her conception of a “sociology of emotions”—the idea that the various cultural and ideological frameworks a person has internalized (class, gender, political affiliation, etc.) _______ each emotional reaction that person has within a situation.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) underlies
  • B) is underlying
  • C) underlie
  • D) has been underlying

Correct answer: C) underlie

✗ A) underlies
The singular verb “underlies” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “frameworks.”

✗ B) is underlying
“Is underlying” is also singular in form and mismatches the plural subject.

✓ C) underlie
The plural verb “underlie” correctly agrees with the plural subject “frameworks” (the true subject of the clause, separated from the verb by the parenthetical examples).

✗ D) has been underlying
“Has been underlying” is likewise a singular verb form and fails to agree with “frameworks.”

Question 25 · Standard English Conventions

American abstract artist Richard _______ his installations to make passersby keenly aware of how one’s movements are affected by the physical features of one’s environment, assembles large-scale steel plates into sculptures that dominate the outdoor spaces they occupy.

Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?

  • A) Serra is intending
  • B) Serra, intends
  • C) Serra, intending
  • D) Serra intends

Correct answer: C) Serra, intending

✗ A) Serra is intending
“Is intending” is a finite verb form, and a sentence can’t have two finite main verbs (“is intending” and “assembles”) without a conjunction joining them.

✗ B) Serra, intends
“Intends” is also finite, creating the same problem: two competing main verbs with no comma pairing to mark a supplementary phrase.

✓ C) Serra, intending
The comma after “Serra” pairs with the comma after “environment” to set off the nonfinite participial phrase “intending his installations…environment” as a supplementary description, leaving “assembles” as the sentence’s one finite main verb.

✗ D) Serra intends
Without any commas, “intends” again functions as a second finite verb, leaving the sentence with two main verbs and no way to subordinate one of them.

Section 4 · Expression of Ideas

Transitions and Rhetorical Synthesis — the questions that close the module.

Question 26 · Transitions

In 1949, Frank Zamboni developed an ice rink resurfacing machine. As Zamboni’s machine moved along the rink’s surface, it first scraped off the top layer of ice. _______ it sprayed water into the deep grooves left behind by customers’ skates. Lastly, it smoothed over the newly formed ice.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • A) For example,
  • B) Next,
  • C) Similarly,
  • D) In contrast,

Correct answer: B) Next,

✗ A) For example,
“For example” would treat the spraying as an illustration of scraping, but it’s a separate, sequential step, not an example of the first one.

✓ B) Next,
“Next” correctly signals that spraying water is the second step in a sequence, following the ice-scraping step and preceding the “lastly” smoothing step.

✗ C) Similarly,
“Similarly” implies the spraying resembles the scraping in some way, but the text is describing a chronological process, not a comparison.

✗ D) In contrast,
“In contrast” implies opposition between the two steps, but they’re simply sequential parts of the same resurfacing process, not contrasting ideas.

Question 27 · Transitions

In 2014, Nestor Gomez won his first-ever storytelling competition, relating a tale about his life as a Guatemalan immigrant living in Chicago. _______ in 2017, Gomez created the show 80 Minutes Around the World as a platform for others to share stories about their immigration experiences.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • A) Instead,
  • B) For example,
  • C) Later,
  • D) In other words,

Correct answer: C) Later,

✗ A) Instead,
“Instead” would suggest the 2017 show replaced or was an alternative to the 2014 win, but the text presents both as sequential events in his career, not a substitution.

✗ B) For example,
“For example” would suggest the show is an instance of winning the competition, but it’s a distinct, later achievement, not an illustration of the earlier one.

✓ C) Later,
“Later” correctly places creating the 2017 show after winning the 2014 competition in a chronological sequence of Gomez’s career.

✗ D) In other words,
“In other words” signals a restatement of the same idea, but creating the show is a new, separate event, not a rephrasing of winning the competition.

Question 28 · Transitions

To guarantee the validity of experimental results, scientists rely on precise, unchanging standards of measurement. _______ metrologists (scientists who study measurement) developed the SI, or International System of Units. The SI’s units of measurement are based on unchanging values in nature, such as the mass of an electron or the speed of light.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • A) In contrast,
  • B) Regardless,
  • C) In addition,
  • D) For this reason,

Correct answer: D) For this reason,

✗ A) In contrast,
“In contrast” would suggest the SI opposes the idea of needing unchanging standards, but the SI was created precisely to meet that need, not to contradict it.

✗ B) Regardless,
“Regardless” implies the SI was developed despite the need for standards, which reverses the actual cause-and-effect relationship in the text.

✗ C) In addition,
“In addition” would present the SI as merely an extra, unrelated fact, when it is actually the direct consequence of the stated need for stable measurement standards.

✓ D) For this reason,
“For this reason” correctly signals that developing the SI was a direct response to scientists’ need for precise, unchanging measurement standards described in the previous sentence.

Question 29 · Transitions

In retrospect, one of the lessons of the 2003 Human Genome Project is that a gene is affected by many factors, not the least of which is its interactions with the protein products of other genes. _______ rather than just focusing on the human genome, efforts to better understand gene mutations related to disease have begun to consider the human proteome, the complete set of proteins expressed by human genes.

Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?

  • A) In other words,
  • B) That said,
  • C) For example,
  • D) Accordingly,

Correct answer: D) Accordingly,

✗ A) In other words,
“In other words” would suggest the second sentence just restates the first, but it instead describes a new research response that follows from that lesson.

✗ B) That said,
“That said” signals a contrast or concession, but the shift toward studying the proteome supports and follows from the earlier point rather than pushing back against it.

✗ C) For example,
“For example” would present the proteome research as a specific instance of the genome lesson, but it’s actually a broader strategic response to that lesson, not a single example of it.

✓ D) Accordingly,
“Accordingly” correctly signals that shifting research focus to the proteome is a logical consequence of the earlier lesson that genes are shaped by interactions with other genes’ protein products.

Question 30 · Rhetorical Synthesis

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • Iranian scholar Abu Rayhan al-Biruni studied Earth’s physical features.
  • He theorized that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.
  • Al-Biruni published his landmass theory in 1037 CE.

The student wants to specify when al-Biruni published his landmass theory. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • A) In 1037 CE, al-Biruni published his theory that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.
  • B) Al-Biruni, who studied Earth’s physical features, published a theory about a large landmass.
  • C) Al-Biruni was an Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s physical features.
  • D) An Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s physical features, al-Biruni theorized that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.

Correct answer: A) In 1037 CE, al-Biruni published his theory that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.

✓ A) In 1037 CE, al-Biruni published his theory that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.
This choice opens with “In 1037 CE,” directly stating the publication date, and then correctly identifies what was published — exactly accomplishing the stated goal of specifying when the theory was published.

✗ B) Al-Biruni, who studied Earth’s physical features, published a theory about a large landmass.
This mentions that al-Biruni studied Earth’s physical features and published a theory, but it never states the year 1037 CE, so it fails to specify when.

✗ C) Al-Biruni was an Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s physical features.
This only identifies al-Biruni as an Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s features; it never mentions publication or a date at all.

✗ D) An Iranian scholar who studied Earth’s physical features, al-Biruni theorized that a large landmass existed west of Europe and east of Asia.
This describes al-Biruni and his theory but omits the publication date entirely, failing to specify when the theory was published.

Question 31 · Rhetorical Synthesis

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • In astronomy, the mass of stars can be described in units called solar masses.
  • One solar mass is roughly equal to the mass of the Sun.
  • The mass of the star Proxima Centauri is 0.122 solar masses.
  • The mass of the star Sirius A is 2.063 solar masses.

The student wants to emphasize the mass of Sirius A. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • A) The mass of stars, like Proxima Centauri, can be described in units called solar masses.
  • B) In astronomy, the mass of stars can be described in units called solar masses, and one solar mass is roughly equal to the mass of the Sun.
  • C) The Sun is more massive than Proxima Centauri, which has a mass of 0.122 solar masses.
  • D) With a mass of 2.063 solar masses, Sirius A is more massive than the Sun.

Correct answer: D) With a mass of 2.063 solar masses, Sirius A is more massive than the Sun.

✗ A) The mass of stars, like Proxima Centauri, can be described in units called solar masses.
This mentions solar masses as a unit and references Proxima Centauri, but it never mentions Sirius A at all.

✗ B) In astronomy, the mass of stars can be described in units called solar masses, and one solar mass is roughly equal to the mass of the Sun.
This defines solar masses and the Sun’s role as the baseline unit, but it never mentions Sirius A or its mass.

✗ C) The Sun is more massive than Proxima Centauri, which has a mass of 0.122 solar masses.
This emphasizes Proxima Centauri’s mass relative to the Sun, not Sirius A’s mass, so it doesn’t accomplish the stated goal.

✓ D) With a mass of 2.063 solar masses, Sirius A is more massive than the Sun.
This choice states Sirius A’s exact mass (2.063 solar masses) and highlights that it exceeds the Sun’s mass — directly emphasizing how massive Sirius A is, which is exactly the stated goal.

Question 32 · Rhetorical Synthesis

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • A lever is a simple machine consisting of a rigid beam and a fulcrum.
  • The fulcrum is the point about which the beam pivots.
  • The input force (effort) is the force applied to the lever.
  • The output force (load) is the force that the lever exerts on another object.
  • In first-class levers, the fulcrum is located between the effort and the load.
  • In second-class levers, the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum.

The student wants to contrast first-class levers and second-class levers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • A) In levers, the effort is the force applied to the lever; the load, in contrast, is the force that the lever exerts on another object.
  • B) In first-class and second-class levers, the fulcrum and the load are in different locations.
  • C) First-class levers are simple machines consisting of a rigid beam and a fulcrum, but then again, the same is true of second-class levers.
  • D) In first-class levers, the fulcrum is located between the effort and the load, but in second-class levers, the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum.

Correct answer: D) In first-class levers, the fulcrum is located between the effort and the load, but in second-class levers, the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum.

✗ A) In levers, the effort is the force applied to the lever; the load, in contrast, is the force that the lever exerts on another object.
This contrasts effort and load as general concepts, not first-class levers with second-class levers specifically.

✗ B) In first-class and second-class levers, the fulcrum and the load are in different locations.
This vaguely states the fulcrum and load are in “different locations” without specifying what those different arrangements actually are, so it fails to give a real contrast.

✗ C) First-class levers are simple machines consisting of a rigid beam and a fulcrum, but then again, the same is true of second-class levers.
This states a similarity (both are simple machines with a beam and fulcrum) rather than a contrast, so it doesn’t accomplish the stated goal.

✓ D) In first-class levers, the fulcrum is located between the effort and the load, but in second-class levers, the load is located between the effort and the fulcrum.
This choice states the specific, contrasting arrangement for each lever type — fulcrum-between-effort-and-load for first-class versus load-between-effort-and-fulcrum for second-class — giving a precise, direct contrast between the two.

Question 33 · Rhetorical Synthesis

While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:

  • Earthquakes start at a point called a “focus” and spread out from there as seismic waves.
  • The two types of seismic waves that travel beneath Earth’s surface are primary waves (P waves) and secondary waves (S waves).
  • P waves travel more quickly beneath Earth’s surface than do S waves.
  • P waves compress and expand the ground, causing it to move backward and forward.
  • S waves cause the ground to move from side to side.

The student wants to emphasize a similarity between P waves and S waves. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?

  • A) P waves and S waves both travel beneath Earth’s surface, causing the ground to move.
  • B) P waves travel away from an earthquake’s starting point at a higher rate of speed than do S waves.
  • C) Spreading out from the focus of an earthquake, P waves move the ground backward and forward.
  • D) Although P waves and S waves start at the same point, they behave very differently.

Correct answer: A) P waves and S waves both travel beneath Earth’s surface, causing the ground to move.

✓ A) P waves and S waves both travel beneath Earth’s surface, causing the ground to move.
This states a feature both wave types share — traveling beneath Earth’s surface and causing ground motion — directly emphasizing a similarity between P waves and S waves, exactly as the goal requires.

✗ B) P waves travel away from an earthquake’s starting point at a higher rate of speed than do S waves.
This highlights that P waves are faster than S waves, which is a difference, not a similarity.

✗ C) Spreading out from the focus of an earthquake, P waves move the ground backward and forward.
This describes only P waves’ motion pattern; it says nothing about S waves, so it can’t emphasize a similarity between the two.

✗ D) Although P waves and S waves start at the same point, they behave very differently.
This explicitly emphasizes that the two wave types “behave very differently,” the opposite of the requested similarity.

How SOMATH prepares NYC students for the Digital SAT

SOMATH (School of Math) is a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan, cofounded by Marcelo Ambrozio (Northwestern-trained lead math teacher) and Vivianne Wright (Harvard-trained, also runs MBA House, one of the largest international GMAT/EA prep firms). Vivianne’s track record with standardized tests — hundreds of admits to Harvard Business School, Stanford GSB, Wharton, MIT Sloan, and INSEAD — is the same rigor we bring to SAT prep for high schoolers.

Math is our core focus, but the Digital SAT is a combined score, and most families need both sections raised together — so our Digital SAT track covers Reading & Writing too:

Manhattan families: If your student is targeting a 1500+ Digital SAT score for Ivy League, MIT, Stanford, or top-15 admissions, book a free diagnostic evaluation or call (646) 668-6151. We are two blocks from the 79th Street 1 train and three blocks from the B/C at the American Museum of Natural History.

Ready to raise your SAT Reading & Writing score?

Start with a free 30-minute in-person diagnostic at our Upper West Side classroom. Includes a written diagnostic report within 48 hours — yours to keep whether you enroll or not.

Book Free Evaluation →   or call (646) 668-6151

SOMATH course · Grades 9–12

Want your child in an SAT Math class at SOMATH?

Small-group Digital SAT Math prep on the Upper West Side. Full Bluebook + Desmos drilling, timed Modules 1 & 2, weekly score tracking, and a free 30-minute in-person diagnostic before enrollment.

See the SAT Math course → Book free evaluation

Digital SAT FAQ

What is on Module 2 of the Digital SAT Reading & Writing section?

Module 2 is a 32-minute, 33-question module with the same four content domains as Module 1: Craft & Structure, Information & Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas. Unlike Module 1, Module 2 is stage-adaptive: the difficulty of the questions you see depends on how you performed on Module 1.

How is the Digital SAT Reading & Writing section scored?

The Reading & Writing section is scored from 200 to 800. Module 1 is the same for every student; Module 2 is stage-adaptive — students who performed well on Module 1 are routed to a harder Module 2 (the upper module) with access to the full 800, and students who did not are routed to an easier Module 2 that typically caps in the mid-600s.

How long is the Digital SAT Reading & Writing section?

64 minutes total, split into two 32-minute modules of 33 questions each. Together with the Math section (70 minutes), the full Digital SAT is 2 hours 14 minutes.

Is Module 2 harder than Module 1 on the Digital SAT?

It depends on your Module 1 performance. If you score well on Module 1, you are routed into the harder version of Module 2, which unlocks access to the top of the 200–800 scale — and that’s the version reflected in this walkthrough. If you don’t score as well, you are routed into an easier version of Module 2 that caps out in the mid-600s. Both versions test the identical four domains and skills; only the difficulty of individual questions differs.

What is a good Digital SAT Reading & Writing score?

As a general reference: 600 ≈ 70th percentile, 700 ≈ 90th percentile, 750+ ≈ top 5%. For MIT, Stanford, Harvard, and the Ivy League, competitive applicants score 750+ on Reading & Writing. For SUNY Binghamton or UNC, 700+. For most CUNY campuses, 580–660.

Does SOMATH teach SAT Reading & Writing, or only Math?

SOMATH is a math-focused school first and foremost, but our Digital SAT program covers the full test, including Reading & Writing, because most families preparing for the SAT need both sections raised together. We teach the same systematic, skill-by-skill approach to grammar (Standard English Conventions) and evidence-based reading that we use for math: identify the exact skill being tested, drill it in isolation, then apply it under timed conditions. Families start with a free 30-minute in-person diagnostic evaluation that covers both sections.

Where is SOMATH located?

226 West 79th Street, 1st Floor, New York, NY 10024. Upper West Side of Manhattan, between Amsterdam and Broadway, right by the 1 train at 79th and the B/C at 81st.

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