Digital SAT · Reading & Writing · Exam Prep · NYC Test Prep
Digital SAT Practice Test 6 — Module 2 Reading & Writing: Full Walkthrough of All 33 Questions with Answers & Explanations
Every question on Digital SAT Practice Test #6, Reading & Writing Module 2, transcribed verbatim, with the official College Board answer key, a plain-English explanation for every choice, theory refreshers on every tested skill, and a free PDF download. Built by SOMATH, the math school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan.
Looking for the answers, explanations, and full walkthrough of Digital SAT Practice Test 6 — Reading & Writing Module 2? You are in the right place. This complete, question-by-question walkthrough transcribes all 33 questions verbatim, includes the official College Board answer for each item, and explains why the correct choice works and why the distractors fail.
Module 2 is the second Reading & Writing module on the Digital SAT. It is stage-adaptive: your performance on Module 1 determines the difficulty band you receive here. The skills remain the same across bands, so practice should be organized by skill as well as by question number.
This upper-module set includes vocabulary, purpose, inference, evidence, grammar, transitions, and rhetorical-synthesis questions. Treat the reveal as a check on your work, not as the first step: answer first, then identify exactly what the evidence or grammar rule required.
Answer key at a glance
All 33 official answers in one two-column table for quick review:
| Question # | Correct Answer |
|---|---|
| 1 | C |
| 2 | D |
| 3 | C |
| 4 | B |
| 5 | B |
| 6 | C |
| 7 | D |
| 8 | C |
| 9 | C |
| 10 | C |
| 11 | C |
| 12 | C |
| 13 | C |
| 14 | D |
| 15 | D |
| 16 | B |
| 17 | A |
| 18 | D |
| 19 | C |
| 20 | A |
| 21 | A |
| 22 | C |
| 23 | B |
| 24 | A |
| 25 | D |
| 26 | B |
| 27 | D |
| 28 | A |
| 29 | B |
| 30 | C |
| 31 | D |
| 32 | B |
| 33 | C |
Sections
Theory refresher · What Module 2 tests
The Digital SAT Reading & Writing section has two 32-minute, 33-question modules. Module 2 is stage-adaptive, but it measures the same four content domains as Module 1. Every item is a short, self-contained passage with four answer choices.
1 · Craft & Structure
Words in Context. Use the entire sentence to determine the needed relationship; choose the word that fits the passage’s exact logic, not merely a familiar synonym.
Text Structure & Purpose. Ask what the highlighted sentence does: introduce a claim, provide evidence, qualify a statement, or show a consequence. Answer the job it performs in the whole passage.
2 · Information & Ideas
Central Ideas & Details. Select the claim supported by the passage as a whole, without importing outside knowledge.
Command of Evidence. For textual questions, make sure the quotation proves every part of the claim. For quantitative questions, check every number against the graph or table before judging the sentence’s logic.
Inferences. Choose the conclusion most directly supported by the stated evidence. A plausible claim that goes beyond the text is still wrong.
3 · Standard English Conventions
Boundaries. Use a period, semicolon, or comma plus a coordinating conjunction between independent clauses. A colon must follow a complete clause and introduce an explanation or list.
Form/Structure/Sense. Check subject-verb agreement, verb form, and modifier placement. An opening modifier must sit beside the noun actually doing the action.
4 · Expression of Ideas
Transitions. Identify the logical relationship before looking at the choices: sequence, cause and effect, contrast, addition, or emphasis.
Rhetorical Synthesis. Use only facts needed for the stated goal. The best answer may contain fewer notes than another choice, but it will accomplish the requested rhetorical task precisely.
Every question below is transcribed verbatim from College Board’s Practice Test 6 booklet. Try each one before opening its reveal.
Section 1 · Craft & Structure (Questions 1–9)
Vocabulary in context, purpose, and structure: begin by following the passage’s logic rather than relying on a word’s general connotation.
Question 1 · Words in Context
The works of Chicana artist Ester Hernandez are now _______ in museums both in the United States and abroad, but the murals she contributed to as a member of Las Mujeres Muralistas early in her artistic career were displayed in outdoor public spaces across San Francisco.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) invented
- B) adjusted
- C) featured
- D) recommended
Answer: C) featured
✗ A) invented “Invented” means created, but the sentence is about where the works are shown, not who made them.
✗ B) adjusted “Adjusted” means changed, which does not describe museum display.
✓ C) featured “Featured” means displayed or presented prominently, which fits works shown in museums. The contrast is between Hernandez’s current museum displays and her earlier outdoor murals.
✗ D) recommended “Recommended” means endorsed, not exhibited.
Question 2 · Words in Context
Whether Carmen Lomas Garza is creating small paintings and illustrations or large public artworks—such as Baile, a copper cutout of traditional Mexican dance in the San Francisco International Airport—she is _______ direct experience, drawing from memories of her childhood in Texas or details of her current surroundings in California.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) complimented by
- B) uncertain about
- C) unbothered by
- D) inspired by
Answer: D) inspired by
✗ A) complimented by “Complimented by” means praised by; experiences do not praise her.
✗ B) uncertain about “Uncertain about” contradicts the confident use of memories and observed details.
✗ C) unbothered by “Unbothered by” means unaffected by, the opposite of drawing artistic material from experience.
✓ D) inspired by The examples immediately after the blank say that Garza draws on memories and surroundings. Someone who draws creative material from direct experience is “inspired by” it.
Question 3 · Words in Context
Animal researcher Amalia P.M. Bastos led a 2021 study about a wild kea parrot that used small stones as tools to preen its feathers. Skeptical colleagues had initially suggested to Bastos that the kea’s interactions with the stones might simply be _______ , but Bastos and her team showed that the kea was using the stones deliberately.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) intriguing
- B) obvious
- C) accidental
- D) observable
Answer: C) accidental
✗ A) intriguing “Intriguing” means interesting, not unintentional.
✗ B) obvious “Obvious” does not contrast with “deliberately.”
✓ C) accidental The word “but” sets up a contrast: the colleagues thought the interactions were not purposeful, whereas the team showed that they were deliberate. “Accidental” supplies that contrast.
✗ D) observable “Observable” merely means capable of being seen and says nothing about intention.
Question 4 · Words in Context
In 1891, design artist William Morris cofounded the Kelmscott Press, which printed editions of books using preindustrial methods. Historians argue that Morris’s repudiation of industrialization is _______ the Kelmscott editions’ use of handmade materials and intricate ornamentation reminiscent of medieval manuscripts: these meticulously handcrafted elements exemplify the artistry involved.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) insensible to
- B) manifest in
- C) scrutinized by
- D) complicated by
Answer: B) manifest in
✗ A) insensible to “Insensible to” means unaware of and reverses the relationship.
✓ B) manifest in The handmade materials and medieval-style ornamentation are concrete evidence of Morris’s anti-industrial outlook. That outlook is therefore “manifest in,” or made evident in, the editions.
✗ C) scrutinized by “Scrutinized by” means closely examined by; the editions show the outlook rather than inspect it.
✗ D) complicated by “Complicated by” means made more difficult by, which does not fit the evidence relationship.
Question 5 · Words in Context
Mary Engle Pennington, a chemist who helped advance home refrigeration, undoubtedly made a substantial impact on society, but her place in our historical memory is perhaps more _______ than that of Stephanie Kwolek, who invented the incredibly strong material known as Kevlar, an accomplishment for which she will long be remembered.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical and precise word or phrase?
- A) permanent
- B) tentative
- C) warranted
- D) prominent
Answer: B) tentative
✗ A) permanent “Permanent” would suggest a firmly lasting memory, weakening the contrast.
✓ B) tentative The contrast says Pennington made a substantial impact but is less securely remembered than Kwolek, who “will long be remembered.” A “tentative” place in historical memory is less settled or secure.
✗ C) warranted “Warranted” means justified and does not describe how securely someone is remembered.
✗ D) prominent “Prominent” means famous or noticeable; it would not fit the implied lesser recognition.
Question 6 · Central Ideas & Details
The following text is from Betty Smith’s 1943 novel A Tree Grows in Brooklyn. Francie, a young girl, visits the library often.
Francie thought that all the books in the world were in that library and she had a plan about reading all the books in the world. She was reading a book a day in alphabetical order and not skipping the dry ones. She remembered that the first author had been Abbott. She had been reading a book a day for a long time now and she was still in the B’s. Already she had read about bees and buffaloes, Bermuda vacations and Byzantine architecture. For all her enthusiasm, she had to admit that some of the B’s had been hard going. But Francie was a reader.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
- A) To illustrate Francie’s enjoyment of an unusual topic
- B) To explain why Francie prefers reading over other activities
- C) To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal
- D) To describe a book that Francie greatly admires
Answer: C) To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal
✗ A) To illustrate Francie’s enjoyment of an unusual topic The passage lists many topics, not one unusual topic she especially enjoys.
✗ B) To explain why Francie prefers reading over other activities It never compares reading with other activities or explains a preference.
✓ C) To portray Francie’s determination to meet a goal The passage centers on Francie’s ambitious plan, her book-a-day schedule, and her refusal to skip difficult books. Those details portray persistence toward the goal of reading every book.
✗ D) To describe a book that Francie greatly admires No single admired book is described; the focus is her sustained reading project.
Question 7 · Text Structure & Purpose
Researchers have long hypothesized that woolly mammoths were hunted to extinction in North America by humans using spears with grooved tips known as Clovis points. One anthropologist set out to test this hypothesis. Using a mechanical spear-thrower, he launched spears with Clovis points into mounds of clay—substitutes for the animals’ large bodies. The projectiles generally penetrated only a few inches into the clay, an amount insufficient to have harmed most woolly mammoths. This led the anthropologist to conclude that hunters using spears with Clovis points likely weren’t the principal drivers of the extinction.
Which choice best states the main purpose of the text?
- A) To argue for the significance of new findings amid an ongoing debate among researchers
- B) To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the method used in an experiment
- C) To summarize two competing hypotheses and a major finding associated with each one
- D) To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis
Answer: D) To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis
✗ A) To argue for the significance of new findings amid an ongoing debate among researchers The passage does not argue broadly about new findings in a debate.
✗ B) To discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the method used in an experiment It does not weigh pros and cons of the experimental method.
✗ C) To summarize two competing hypotheses and a major finding associated with each one Only one hypothesis is presented; the conclusion is a challenge to it, not a second competing hypothesis.
✓ D) To describe an experiment whose results cast doubt on an established hypothesis The text introduces an established Clovis-point hypothesis, describes an experiment testing it, and reports results that led the researcher to doubt it. That is exactly choice D.
Question 8 · Text Structure & Purpose
The people of medieval Europe have traditionally been seen as uninterested in cleanliness and hygiene, but modern research has shown that this is largely a myth. According to historian Eleanor Janega, most medieval towns in Europe had at least one public bathhouse, which often offered both full-immersion baths and—more affordably—steam baths. While such amenities were available mainly to town dwellers, regular bathing in rivers and streams or daily sponge baths at home were common practices throughout medieval Europe.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion?
- A) It asserts that in medieval Europe steam baths were more popular in rural areas than in urban ones.
- B) It describes a limitation of earlier historians’ studies of medieval European bathing habits.
- C) It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses.
- D) It explains why Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe.
Answer: C) It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses.
✗ A) It asserts that in medieval Europe steam baths were more popular in rural areas than in urban ones. It says the amenities were mainly available to town dwellers, not more popular in rural areas.
✗ B) It describes a limitation of earlier historians’ studies of medieval European bathing habits. It discusses access in medieval Europe, not a defect in earlier historians’ methods.
✓ C) It concedes that not all people in medieval Europe had access to public bathhouses. The underlined sentence begins with “While” and qualifies the bathhouse evidence: public bathhouse amenities were mainly available to town dwellers. It concedes limited access while the rest of the sentence gives other widespread bathing practices.
✗ D) It explains why Janega decided to study the popularity of public bathhouses in medieval Europe. It gives no reason Janega decided to study the topic.
Question 9 · Text Structure & Purpose
Scholarly accounts of the Chicano movement—a movement that advocated for the social, political, and cultural empowerment of Mexican Americans and reached its zenith in the 1960s and 1970s—tend to focus on the most militant, outspoken figures in the movement, making it seem uniformly radical. Geographer Juan Herrera has shown, however, that if we shift our focus toward the way the movement manifested in comparatively low-profile neighborhood institutions and projects, we see participants espousing an array of political orientations and approaches to community activism.
Which choice best describes the function of the underlined portion in the text as a whole?
- A) It presents a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement that the text claims has been reevaluated by researchers in light of Herrera’s work on the movement’s participants.
- B) It identifies an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text implies was overemphasized by scholars due to their own political orientations.
- C) It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants.
- D) It summarizes the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, which the text suggests creates a misleading impression of the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions and projects.
Answer: C) It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants.
✗ A) It presents a trend in scholarship on the Chicano movement that the text claims has been reevaluated by researchers in light of Herrera’s work on the movement’s participants. The passage contrasts the approach with Herrera’s work but does not say researchers broadly reevaluated it.
✗ B) It identifies an aspect of the Chicano movement that the text implies was overemphasized by scholars due to their own political orientations. It gives no claim about scholars’ own political orientations.
✓ C) It describes a common approach to studying the Chicano movement that, according to the text, obscures the ideological diversity of the movement’s participants. The underlined sentence says scholarship focuses on militant figures and thereby makes the movement look uniformly radical. Herrera’s different focus reveals varied political orientations, so the earlier approach obscures diversity.
✗ D) It summarizes the conventional method for analyzing the Chicano movement, which the text suggests creates a misleading impression of the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions and projects. The passage says the approach obscures ideological diversity, not that it misjudges the effectiveness of neighborhood institutions.
Section 2 · Information & Ideas (Questions 10–18)
Main ideas, inferences, and textual or quantitative evidence: make every conclusion traceable to the passage, table, or figure.
Question 10 · Central Ideas & Details
Elizabeth Asiedu has identified a negative correlation between the share of developing countries’ economies derived from natural-resource extraction and those countries’ receipts of foreign investment. This may appear counterintuitive—resource extraction requires initial investments (in extractive technology, for instance) at scales best met by multinational corporations—but Asiedu notes that natural-resource industries’ boom-bust cycle can destabilize local currencies and increase developing countries’ vulnerability to external shocks, creating levels of uncertainty to which foreign investors are typically averse.
Which choice best states the main idea of the text?
- A) Although it may seem surprising that foreign investment declines in developing countries as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of those countries’ economies, that decline happens because resource extraction requires initial investments too large for foreign investors to supply.
- B) Although developing countries tend to become less dependent on foreign investment as natural-resource industries make up a larger share of their economies, this change may not occur if the boom-bust cycle of those industries destabilizes local currencies or increases countries’ vulnerability to external shocks.
- C) Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors.
- D) Although foreign investors tend to avoid initial investments in natural-resource industries in developing countries, foreign investment may increase significantly as those industries stabilize and the risks associated with them decline.
Answer: C) Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors.
✗ A) Although it may seem surprising that foreign investment declines in developing countries as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of those countries’ economies, that decline happens because resource extraction requires initial investments too large for foreign investors to supply. The passage says multinationals can meet the initial investment scale; that is not the reason investment declines.
✗ B) Although developing countries tend to become less dependent on foreign investment as natural-resource industries make up a larger share of their economies, this change may not occur if the boom-bust cycle of those industries destabilizes local currencies or increases countries’ vulnerability to external shocks. It changes the claim to countries becoming less dependent on investment, which the passage does not state.
✓ C) Although one might expect that foreign investment would increase as natural-resource extraction makes up a larger share of developing countries’ economies, the opposite happens because heavy reliance on natural resources can lead to unattractive conditions for investors. The passage presents an apparently surprising negative correlation and then explains it: reliance on resource industries can create instability and uncertainty that foreign investors avoid. Choice C captures both the expectation and the explanation.
✗ D) Although foreign investors tend to avoid initial investments in natural-resource industries in developing countries, foreign investment may increase significantly as those industries stabilize and the risks associated with them decline. It reverses the passage’s point: the text says resource extraction requires initial investment and that investors are averse to the uncertainty it can create; it does not predict later investment growth.
Question 11 · Inferences
To understand how temperature change affects microorganism-mediated cycling of soil nutrients in alpine ecosystems, Eva Kaštovská et al. collected plant-soil cores in the Tatra Mountains at elevations around 2,100 meters and transplanted them to elevations of 1,700–1,800 meters, where the mean air temperature was warmer by 2°C. Microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores; crucially, microorganism community composition was unchanged, allowing Kaštovská et al. to attribute the acceleration to temperature-induced increases in microorganism activity.
It can most reasonably be inferred from the text that the finding about the microorganism community composition was important for which reason?
- A) It provided preliminary evidence that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores.
- B) It suggested that temperature-induced changes in microorganism activity may be occurring at increasingly high elevations.
- C) It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling.
- D) It clarified that microorganism activity levels in the plant-soil cores varied depending on which microorganisms comprised the community.
Answer: C) It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling.
✗ A) It provided preliminary evidence that microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling was accelerated in the transplanted cores. The acceleration itself, not the composition finding, provided that evidence.
✗ B) It suggested that temperature-induced changes in microorganism activity may be occurring at increasingly high elevations. The study compares elevations but does not infer a pattern at increasingly high elevations.
✓ C) It ruled out a potential alternative explanation for the acceleration in microorganism-mediated nutrient cycling. Because the community composition stayed unchanged, a change in which microorganisms were present cannot explain the faster nutrient cycling. The finding therefore rules out that alternative explanation and supports a temperature/activity explanation.
✗ D) It clarified that microorganism activity levels in the plant-soil cores varied depending on which microorganisms comprised the community. The text says the community composition was unchanged, not that activity varied according to which microorganisms were present.
Question 12 · Inferences
Some astronomers searching for extraterrestrial life have proposed that atmospheric NH3 (ammonia) can serve as a biosignature gas—an indication that a planet harbors life. Jingcheng Huang, Sara Seager, and colleagues evaluated this possibility, finding that on rocky planets, atmospheric NH3 likely couldn’t reach detectably high levels in the absence of biological activity. But the team also found that on so-called mini-Neptunes—gas planets smaller than Neptune but with atmospheres similar to Neptune’s—atmospheric pressure and temperature can be high enough to produce atmospheric NH3.
Based on the text, Huang, Seager, and colleagues would most likely agree with which statement about atmospheric NH3?
- A) Its presence is more likely to indicate that a planet is a mini-Neptune than that the planet is a rocky planet that could support life.
- B) Its absence from a planet that’s not a mini-Neptune indicates that the planet probably doesn’t have life.
- C) It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune.
- D) It doesn’t reliably reach high enough concentrations in the atmospheres of rocky planets or mini-Neptunes to be treated as a biosignature gas.
Answer: C) It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune.
✗ A) Its presence is more likely to indicate that a planet is a mini-Neptune than that the planet is a rocky planet that could support life. The passage does not compare which planet type NH3 presence makes more likely.
✗ B) Its absence from a planet that’s not a mini-Neptune indicates that the planet probably doesn’t have life. Absence of NH3 does not establish absence of life.
✓ C) It should be treated as a biosignature gas if detected in the atmosphere of a rocky planet but not if detected in the atmosphere of a mini-Neptune. On rocky planets, high detectable NH3 likely requires biological activity, so it can serve as a biosignature. On mini-Neptunes, physical conditions can make NH3 without life, so detection there is not reliable evidence of life.
✗ D) It doesn’t reliably reach high enough concentrations in the atmospheres of rocky planets or mini-Neptunes to be treated as a biosignature gas. The passage says mini-Neptune conditions can produce atmospheric NH3, so it can reach high levels there.
Question 13 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
In 2021, four of the United States national parks that were among the most visited were Grand Canyon National Park, Rocky Mountain National Park, Yellowstone National Park, and Zion National Park. The graph shows the number of visits for recreation to each of these parks during the three-month period with the highest number of visitors. A student notes that among the parks shown in the graph, the park with the highest monthly recreation visits in all three months was _______
Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the text?
See figure in the original College Board PDF above.
- A) Zion National Park.
- B) Rocky Mountain National Park.
- C) Yellowstone National Park.
- D) Grand Canyon National Park.
Answer: C) Yellowstone National Park.
✗ A) Zion National Park. Zion is never the top line.
✗ B) Rocky Mountain National Park. Rocky Mountain is below Yellowstone in every month.
✓ C) Yellowstone National Park. Use the graph month by month. The Yellowstone line is above the other three in June, July, and August, so Yellowstone had the highest monthly recreation visits in all three months.
✗ D) Grand Canyon National Park. Grand Canyon is lower than Yellowstone in every month.
Question 14 · Command of Evidence (Textual)
“Lines Written in Early Spring” is a 1798 poem by William Wordsworth. In the poem, the speaker describes having contradictory feelings while experiencing the sights and sounds of a spring day: _______
Which quotation from “Lines Written in Early Spring” most effectively illustrates the claim?
- A) “Through primrose-tufts, in that sweet bower, / The periwinkle trail’d its wreathes; / And ’tis my faith that every flower / Enjoys the air it breathes.”
- B) “The budding twigs spread out their fan, / To catch the breezy air; / And I must think, do all I can, / That there was pleasure there.”
- C) “The birds around me hopp’d and play’d: / Their thoughts I cannot measure, / But the least motion which they made, / It seem’d a thrill of pleasure.”
- D) “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”
Answer: D) “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”
✗ A) “Through primrose-tufts, in that sweet bower, / The periwinkle trail’d its wreathes; / And ’tis my faith that every flower / Enjoys the air it breathes.” This describes pleasant natural imagery without a contrary feeling.
✗ B) “The budding twigs spread out their fan, / To catch the breezy air; / And I must think, do all I can, / That there was pleasure there.” This expresses a sense of pleasure, not conflicting emotions.
✗ C) “The birds around me hopp’d and play’d: / Their thoughts I cannot measure, / But the least motion which they made, / It seem’d a thrill of pleasure.” The birds’ apparent pleasure is not a contradiction in the speaker’s feelings.
✓ D) “I heard a thousand blended notes, / While in a grove I [sat] reclined, / In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts / Bring sad thoughts to the mind.” The claim requires both positive and negative feeling. Choice D directly pairs “pleasant thoughts” with “sad thoughts” in the same “sweet mood,” making the contradiction explicit.
Question 15 · Command of Evidence (Quantitative)
To test whether a medication is effective, scientists compare outcomes for patients taking it and patients taking a placebo (a medically inactive substance). Patients normally aren’t told they’re receiving a placebo, but a research team conducted a study to see if there might be a medical benefit to telling them. The team used various measures to evaluate participants, with higher ratings indicating greater well-being in each measure. Compared to the mean ratings after 21 days for participants in the control group, the mean ratings for participants who were aware of taking a placebo _______
Mean Ratings for Patients after 21 Days
| Measure | Mean rating for participants aware of taking a placebo | Mean rating for participants in the control group |
|---|---|---|
| Global improvement | 5.0 | 3.9 |
| Symptom severity reduction | 92.00 | 46.00 |
| Quality of life improvement | 11.4 | 5.4 |
Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the statement?
- A) ranged from 5.0 to 92.00, indicating that well-being varied widely from participant to participant.
- B) were lower for two measures, with the rating for only one measure indicating greater well-being for these participants.
- C) ranged from 3.9 to 46.00, with no rating indicating greater well-being in any measure for these participants.
- D) were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants.
Answer: D) were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants.
✗ A) ranged from 5.0 to 92.00, indicating that well-being varied widely from participant to participant. The values are group means across measures, not evidence that individual well-being varied widely.
✗ B) were lower for two measures, with the rating for only one measure indicating greater well-being for these participants. Every aware-placebo mean is higher, not lower for two measures.
✗ C) ranged from 3.9 to 46.00, with no rating indicating greater well-being in any measure for these participants. Those are control-group values and the statement about no greater well-being is false.
✓ D) were higher for all three measures, indicating greater overall well-being for these participants. The aware-placebo group scores 5.0 versus 3.9 for global improvement, 92.00 versus 46.00 for symptom-severity reduction, and 11.4 versus 5.4 for quality-of-life improvement. All three are higher, and the prompt says higher means greater well-being.
Question 16 · Command of Evidence (Textual)
As media consumption has become increasingly multiplatform and socially mediated, active news acquisition has diminished in favor of an attitude known as “news finds me” (NFM), in which people passively rely on their social networks and ambient media environments for information about current events. Homero Gil de Zúñiga and Trevor Diehl examined data on a representative group of adults in the United States to determine participants’ strength of NFM attitude, political knowledge, and political interest. Although no major election took place sufficiently near the study for Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl to identify causality between NFM and voting behavior, they did posit that NFM may reduce voting probability through an indirect effect.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the idea advanced by Gil de Zúñiga and Diehl?
- A) NFM attitude tends to increase in strength as major elections approach, and people are significantly more likely to vote in major elections than in minor elections.
- B) NFM attitude has a strong negative effect on political knowledge and interest, and there is known to be a strong positive correlation between political knowledge and interest and the likelihood of voting.
- C) Political interest is known to have a strong positive effect on likelihood of voting but shows only a weak positive effect on political knowledge, and NFM attitude shows little correlation with either political knowledge or political interest.
- D) The likelihood of voting increases as political knowledge increases, and the relationship between NFM attitude and political knowledge tends to strengthen as the size of people’s social networks increases.
Answer: B) NFM attitude has a strong negative effect on political knowledge and interest, and there is known to be a strong positive correlation between political knowledge and interest and the likelihood of voting.
✗ A) NFM attitude tends to increase in strength as major elections approach, and people are significantly more likely to vote in major elections than in minor elections. This gives timing patterns, not an indirect mechanism from NFM to voting.
✓ B) NFM attitude has a strong negative effect on political knowledge and interest, and there is known to be a strong positive correlation between political knowledge and interest and the likelihood of voting. The proposed indirect chain is NFM → lower political knowledge and interest → lower likelihood of voting. Choice B provides every link in that chain.
✗ C) Political interest is known to have a strong positive effect on likelihood of voting but shows only a weak positive effect on political knowledge, and NFM attitude shows little correlation with either political knowledge or political interest. It says NFM has little correlation with political knowledge or interest, undermining the proposed indirect pathway.
✗ D) The likelihood of voting increases as political knowledge increases, and the relationship between NFM attitude and political knowledge tends to strengthen as the size of people’s social networks increases. It does not establish that stronger NFM lowers political knowledge or interest, so it fails to support the required indirect effect.
Question 17 · Inferences
The practice of logging (cutting down trees for commercial and other uses) is often thought to be at odds with forest conservation (the work of preserving forests). However, a massive study in forest management and preservation spanning 700,000 hectares in Oregon’s Malheur National Forest calls that view into question. So far, results of the study suggest that forest plots that have undergone limited logging (the careful removal of a controlled number of trees) may be more robust than plots that haven’t been logged at all. These results, in turn, suggest that _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) logging may be useful for maintaining healthy forests, provided it is limited.
- B) other forest management strategies are more effective than limited logging.
- C) as time passes, it will be difficult to know whether limited logging has any benefits.
- D) the best way to support forest health may be to leave large forests entirely untouched.
Answer: A) logging may be useful for maintaining healthy forests, provided it is limited.
✓ A) logging may be useful for maintaining healthy forests, provided it is limited. If carefully limited logging produces more robust plots than no logging, then limited logging may help maintain forest health. Choice A states that cautious conclusion without overclaiming.
✗ B) other forest management strategies are more effective than limited logging. No other forest-management strategies are tested or compared.
✗ C) as time passes, it will be difficult to know whether limited logging has any benefits. The preliminary results suggest a benefit; they do not predict that it will become impossible to know whether benefits exist.
✗ D) the best way to support forest health may be to leave large forests entirely untouched. This is the opposite of the evidence: plots with limited logging may be more robust than unlogged plots.
Question 18 · Inferences
Even with the widespread adoption of personal computers, many authors still choose to write and revise their novels by hand and only then transcribe the final version on a computer. It may be tempting to speculate about how a novel written this way would be affected if it had been exclusively typed instead, but each novel is a unique entity resulting from a specific set of circumstances. Therefore, _______
Which choice most logically completes the text?
- A) in order to increase their efficiency, authors who currently write their novels largely by hand should instead work only on a computer.
- B) authors who do most of their drafting and revising by hand likely have more success than those who work entirely on a computer.
- C) novels written by hand take less time to produce, on average, than novels written on a computer do.
- D) there is no way to reasonably evaluate how a work would be different if it had been written by other means.
Answer: D) there is no way to reasonably evaluate how a work would be different if it had been written by other means.
✗ A) in order to increase their efficiency, authors who currently write their novels largely by hand should instead work only on a computer. The passage offers no efficiency recommendation.
✗ B) authors who do most of their drafting and revising by hand likely have more success than those who work entirely on a computer. It makes no claim about comparative success.
✗ C) novels written by hand take less time to produce, on average, than novels written on a computer do. It gives no evidence about average production time.
✓ D) there is no way to reasonably evaluate how a work would be different if it had been written by other means. The passage says each novel results from a unique set of circumstances. That prevents a reliable counterfactual judgment about how the same work would differ if created by another method.
Section 3 · Standard English Conventions (Questions 19–26)
Question boundaries, modifiers, list punctuation, and subject-verb agreement: find the grammatical structure before choosing punctuation.
Question 19 · Boundaries
In forecasting weather events, meteorologists sometimes discuss the role of atmospheric rivers. What are atmospheric rivers, and how _______ Part of the water cycle, atmospheric rivers are narrow channels of moisture moving through the atmosphere. In certain conditions, these “rivers” can release some of their moisture as precipitation.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) do they affect our weather.
- B) they do affect our weather.
- C) do they affect our weather?
- D) they do affect our weather?
Answer: C) do they affect our weather?
✗ A) do they affect our weather. It has correct inversion but ends a direct question with a period.
✗ B) they do affect our weather. It uses statement word order after “how.”
✓ C) do they affect our weather? The sentence begins “What are atmospheric rivers, and how …” and is a direct question. After “how,” standard word order is “do they affect,” and the question needs a question mark.
✗ D) they do affect our weather? It has a question mark but uses statement word order after “how.”
Question 20 · Form/Structure/Sense
One of the few African American global explorers during the turn of the 20th century, _______
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland between 1891 and 1909.
- B) 1891 and 1909 were the years between which Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland.
- C) Greenland was where Matthew Henson made several treks between 1891 and 1909.
- D) several treks across Greenland were made by Matthew Henson between 1891 and 1909.
Answer: A) Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland between 1891 and 1909.
✓ A) Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland between 1891 and 1909. The introductory noun phrase describes a person, so it must be followed immediately by the person it modifies: “Matthew Henson.” Choice A is direct and correctly places that subject.
✗ B) 1891 and 1909 were the years between which Matthew Henson made several treks across Greenland. The years 1891 and 1909 cannot be “one of the few African American global explorers.”
✗ C) Greenland was where Matthew Henson made several treks between 1891 and 1909. Greenland cannot be “one of the few African American global explorers.”
✗ D) several treks across Greenland were made by Matthew Henson between 1891 and 1909. Several treks cannot be “one of the few African American global explorers,” creating a dangling modifier.
Question 21 · Form/Structure/Sense
Woven from recycled yarn and hand tufted using a carpet weaving technique passed down by the artist’s Turkish grandmother, _______ so lush and tactilely inviting that you are tempted to reach out and touch them.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) the topological tapestries of Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou are
- B) the Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou creates topological tapestries that are
- C) when she creates her topological tapestries, Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou makes them
- D) Alexandra Kehayoglou is an Argentine textile artist whose topological tapestries are
Answer: A) the topological tapestries of Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou are
✓ A) the topological tapestries of Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou are The opening participial phrase describes the tapestries, and the verb must agree with plural “tapestries”: “the topological tapestries … are.” Choice A is concise and grammatically complete.
✗ B) the Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou creates topological tapestries that are The opening phrase describes the tapestries, but this choice makes the artist the grammatical subject and therefore creates a dangling modifier.
✗ C) when she creates her topological tapestries, Argentine textile artist Alexandra Kehayoglou makes them This makes the artist the subject after an opening phrase that describes tapestries, creating a modifier error and an unnecessarily indirect sentence.
✗ D) Alexandra Kehayoglou is an Argentine textile artist whose topological tapestries are The artist, rather than the tapestries, is the noun immediately following the opening phrase, so the modifier dangles.
Question 22 · Boundaries
Physical materials can be classified by how much light passes through them. Clear glass, which is classified as transparent, allows all (or almost all) light to pass _______ wax paper, which is classified as translucent, allows only some light to pass through.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) through,
- B) through
- C) through;
- D) through and
Answer: C) through;
✗ A) through, A comma alone creates a comma splice between independent clauses.
✗ B) through No punctuation creates a run-on.
✓ C) through; The text contains two independent clauses: “Clear glass … allows … through” and “wax paper … allows … through.” A semicolon can correctly join them; the second clause begins with a new subject, “wax paper.”
✗ D) through and “And” does not correctly join the two complete clauses here; the sentence needs a valid punctuation boundary before “wax paper.”
Question 23 · Boundaries
Using natural debris, such as dried _______ such as plastic bags; and more traditional art supplies, such as tree glue, Ghanaian artist Ed Franklin Gavua creates his striking Yiiiiikakaii African masks, which he hopes can help viewers rethink how waste is used in their communities.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) leaves, man-made trash:
- B) leaves; man-made trash,
- C) leaves, man-made trash,
- D) leaves; man-made trash;
Answer: B) leaves; man-made trash,
✗ A) leaves, man-made trash: A colon does not correctly complete the first list item.
✓ B) leaves; man-made trash, The sentence lists three parallel categories: natural debris, man-made trash, and traditional art supplies. The first two categories contain internal examples, so semicolons separate the major list elements; “man-made trash, such as plastic bags” stays together.
✗ C) leaves, man-made trash, Commas alone do not clearly separate the three complex list elements, each of which includes an internal example phrase.
✗ D) leaves; man-made trash; The semicolon after “trash” wrongly separates “man-made trash” from its own example phrase, “such as plastic bags.”
Question 24 · Boundaries
Latin America is known to have dozens, if not hundreds, of popular dance forms. Only five of these dances are included in international ballroom dance _______ rumba, samba, cha-cha-cha, paso doble, and jive—the last of which is grouped with the other Latin dances despite not having Latin roots.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) competitions, however:
- B) competitions, however,
- C) competitions, however;
- D) competitions; however,
Answer: A) competitions, however:
✓ A) competitions, however: The word “however” is a parenthetical interrupter, so it needs commas around it. The list of five dances explains what precedes it, so a colon correctly introduces that list: “competitions, however: rumba …”
✗ B) competitions, however, The commas correctly set off “however,” but the sentence still needs a colon to introduce the list of dances.
✗ C) competitions, however; A semicolon cannot introduce the list after the parenthetical “however”; a colon is needed.
✗ D) competitions; however, The semicolon incorrectly splits the clause before “however,” and the remaining punctuation cannot introduce the list.
Question 25 · Boundaries
For thousands of years, humans have used domesticated goats (Capra hircus) to clear land of unwanted vegetation. When it comes to their diets, goats are notoriously _______ they will devour all kinds of shrubs and weeds, leaving virtually no part of any plant unconsumed.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) indiscriminate and
- B) indiscriminate,
- C) indiscriminate
- D) indiscriminate:
Answer: D) indiscriminate:
✗ A) indiscriminate and “And” does not correctly connect the adjective to a complete explanatory clause.
✗ B) indiscriminate, A comma alone creates a comma splice.
✗ C) indiscriminate No punctuation creates a run-on.
✓ D) indiscriminate: The complete clause “goats are notoriously indiscriminate” is followed by an explanation of that claim: they devour many kinds of plants. A colon correctly introduces that explanation.
Question 26 · Form/Structure/Sense
A species of Byropsis algae produces toxins to avoid being eaten by predators. However, in some cases, the toxins the organism uses to protect itself from predation actually _______ its attractiveness to predators. The Hawaiian sea slug, for example, not only tolerates Byropsis toxins but actually uses them for protection in the same way the algae does.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
- A) is increasing
- B) increase
- C) increases
- D) has increased
Answer: B) increase
✗ A) is increasing “Is increasing” is singular and does not agree with “toxins.”
✓ B) increase The subject is the plural noun “toxins,” so the verb must be plural: “toxins … increase its attractiveness.” The present tense states a general effect.
✗ C) increases “Increases” is singular and does not agree with the plural subject “toxins.”
✗ D) has increased “Has increased” is singular and also introduces an unsupported completed-time meaning.
Section 4 · Expression of Ideas (Questions 27–33)
Transitions and rhetorical synthesis: identify the relationship or stated communication goal first, then select the choice that does exactly that job.
Question 27 · Transitions
After appropriate permissions are granted, a typical archaeological dig begins with a surveyor making a detailed grid of the excavation site. Then, the site is carefully dug, and any artifacts found are recorded and mapped onto the site grid. _______ the artifacts are removed, cataloged, and analyzed in a laboratory.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
- A) For instance,
- B) On the contrary,
- C) Earlier,
- D) Finally,
Answer: D) Finally,
✗ A) For instance, “For instance” introduces an example, not the next procedural step.
✗ B) On the contrary, “On the contrary” signals opposition, which is absent.
✗ C) Earlier, “Earlier” reverses the sequence.
✓ D) Finally, The passage presents a chronological procedure: permission, grid, digging and mapping, then removal and analysis. “Finally” signals the final step.
Question 28 · Transitions
The liquid metals in Earth’s core circulate constantly, and this circulation generates electrical currents that flow between Earth’s North and South magnetic poles. These electrical currents, _______ create a barrier around Earth that protects us from radiation and charged particles coming from space.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
- A) in turn,
- B) likewise,
- C) nevertheless,
- D) in reality,
Answer: A) in turn,
✓ A) in turn, The electrical currents are an effect of the metal circulation and then cause the protective barrier. “In turn” signals that next link in a causal sequence.
✗ B) likewise, “Likewise” signals similarity, not the next effect in a causal chain.
✗ C) nevertheless, “Nevertheless” signals contrast, but the passage presents a continuing causal sequence.
✗ D) in reality, “In reality” would correct a misconception; no correction is being made here.
Question 29 · Transitions
Biographer Michael Gorra notes that the novelist Henry James “lived in a world of second thoughts,” frequently tinkering with his novels and stories after their initial publication. However, the differences between the 1881 first edition and the 1908 edition of his novel A Portrait of a Lady are extreme, even by James’s standards; _______ some critics regard the two editions as two different novels altogether.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
- A) by contrast,
- B) in fact,
- C) nevertheless,
- D) in other words,
Answer: B) in fact,
✗ A) by contrast, “By contrast” would require an opposing idea.
✓ B) in fact, The second clause intensifies the claim that the revisions are extreme: some critics go so far as to treat the editions as different novels. “In fact” appropriately adds confirming emphasis.
✗ C) nevertheless, “In other words” signals a restatement, but the second clause is a stronger consequence of the extreme revisions.
✗ D) in other words, “Nevertheless” signals a concession or contrast that is not present.
Question 30 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• In World War I, US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma participated in the Choctaw Code Talkers program.
• The Choctaw Code Talkers were trained to relay coded military information in their native language.
• In World War II, the US Army recruited Navajo (Diné) soldiers to transmit coded messages in their native language.
• These soldiers were known as the Navajo Code Talkers.
The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma used their native language to relay coded information.
- B) In World War II, one group of Navajo (Diné) soldiers was known as the Navajo Code Talkers.
- C) Both the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers transmitted coded military messages in the soldiers’ native languages.
- D) The Choctaw Code Talkers, not the Navajo Code Talkers, served in World War I.
Answer: C) Both the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers transmitted coded military messages in the soldiers’ native languages.
✗ A) US soldiers who were members of the Choctaw Nation in Oklahoma used their native language to relay coded information. This describes only the Choctaw Code Talkers.
✗ B) In World War II, one group of Navajo (Diné) soldiers was known as the Navajo Code Talkers. This describes only the Navajo Code Talkers.
✓ C) Both the Choctaw Code Talkers and the Navajo Code Talkers transmitted coded military messages in the soldiers’ native languages. The goal is a similarity, so the answer must name both groups and identify a shared trait. Choice C does both: each group transmitted coded military messages in its members’ native language.
✗ D) The Choctaw Code Talkers, not the Navajo Code Talkers, served in World War I. This emphasizes a difference in wartime service rather than a similarity.
Question 31 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories.
• A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall.
• All other meteorites found on Earth are known as meteorite finds.
• There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls.
• There have been over 60,000 recorded meteorite finds.
The student wants to contrast the number of meteorite falls with the number of meteorite finds. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall; all others are known as meteorite finds.
- B) Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories: meteorite falls and meteorite finds.
- C) There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, or meteorites observed falling to Earth.
- D) While there have been only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds.
Answer: D) While there have been only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds.
✗ A) A meteorite that was observed falling to Earth before being recovered is known as a meteorite fall; all others are known as meteorite finds. This contrasts definitions, not the numbers.
✗ B) Meteorites found on Earth are divided into two categories: meteorite falls and meteorite finds. This names the categories but supplies no numerical contrast.
✗ C) There have been about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, or meteorites observed falling to Earth. This supplies one number only.
✓ D) While there have been only about 1,200 recorded meteorite falls, there have been over 60,000 meteorite finds. The goal is specifically to contrast the two numbers. Choice D gives both counts and uses “While” plus “only” to make the large numerical difference clear.
Question 32 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a Brazilian botanist.
• Between 1924 and 1941, she collected approximately 800 botanical samples.
• She collected a sample of Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia in Mauá in February of 1925.
• She collected a sample of Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno in Corcovado in March of 1925.
• Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen are both species of moss.
The student wants to emphasize the sample collected from Serra de Itatiaia. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a botanist notable for collecting approximately 800 botanical samples between 1924 and 1941.
- B) Among the many botanical samples Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected was Polytrichum juniperinum, a species of moss she collected from Serra de Itatiaia in 1925.
- C) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected many botanical samples, such as Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia and Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno.
- D) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected samples of Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen, both species of moss.
Answer: B) Among the many botanical samples Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected was Polytrichum juniperinum, a species of moss she collected from Serra de Itatiaia in 1925.
✗ A) Doña María do Carmo Bandeira was a botanist notable for collecting approximately 800 botanical samples between 1924 and 1941. This emphasizes the total number of samples, not the Serra de Itatiaia sample.
✓ B) Among the many botanical samples Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected was Polytrichum juniperinum, a species of moss she collected from Serra de Itatiaia in 1925. Choice B names the Serra de Itatiaia sample, identifies it as Polytrichum juniperinum, and gives the relevant date. It keeps the requested sample at the center instead of diffusing attention across the entire collection.
✗ C) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected many botanical samples, such as Polytrichum juniperinum from Serra de Itatiaia and Sphagnum gracilescen from Ponte do Inferno. It splits attention between the Serra de Itatiaia and Ponte do Inferno samples.
✗ D) Between 1924 and 1941, Doña María do Carmo Bandeira collected samples of Polytrichum juniperinum and Sphagnum gracilescen, both species of moss. It names two samples but neither location, so it misses the stated focus.
Question 33 · Rhetorical Synthesis
While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• The US government classifies sensitive information according to the degree to which disclosure could affect the nation’s security.
• Information that could cause “damage” to national security is classified as Confidential.
• Information that could cause “serious damage” to national security is classified as Secret.
• Most routine diplomatic correspondence, if disclosed, could cause damage but not serious damage to national security.
• Diplomatic correspondence includes communication with both allies and adversaries.
The student wants to indicate which category most routine diplomatic correspondence belongs in, based on how sensitive information is classified. Which choice most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
- A) According to the US government, which classifies such sensitive information as routine diplomatic correspondence, Confidential information could damage national security if disclosed.
- B) Most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified according to the degree to which disclosure could affect the nation’s security.
- C) Having the potential to damage national security if disclosed, most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified as Confidential.
- D) If disclosed, communication with both allies and adversaries could affect the nation’s security.
Answer: C) Having the potential to damage national security if disclosed, most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified as Confidential.
✗ A) According to the US government, which classifies such sensitive information as routine diplomatic correspondence, Confidential information could damage national security if disclosed. The sentence reverses the classification relationship and is illogical.
✗ B) Most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified according to the degree to which disclosure could affect the nation’s security. It repeats the general system but never gives the category.
✓ C) Having the potential to damage national security if disclosed, most routine diplomatic correspondence is classified as Confidential. Routine diplomatic correspondence could cause “damage” but not “serious damage.” The notes define information that could cause damage as Confidential, so choice C correctly applies the classification rule.
✗ D) If disclosed, communication with both allies and adversaries could affect the nation’s security. It gives a broad fact about correspondence without applying the classification categories.
How SOMATH prepares NYC students for the Digital SAT
SOMATH (School of Math) is a math-focused school on the Upper West Side of Manhattan. Our Digital SAT track treats Reading & Writing as a skill-by-skill system alongside Math, so students learn to recognize the exact rule, evidence move, or rhetorical task that each question requires.
- Small-group in-person classes (6–8 students max) at 226 W 79th Street on the Upper West Side.
- Structured curriculum aligned to the Digital SAT’s four Reading & Writing domains and four Math domains.
- Skill-tagged drilling that turns errors into targeted practice in words in context, evidence, conventions, transitions, and synthesis.
- Full-length timed Modules 1 and 2 for both Math and Reading & Writing, with weekly score tracking.
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Digital SAT FAQ
What does this SAT Practice Test 6 R&W Module 2 walkthrough cover?
All 33 questions, every answer choice, the official answer key, and an explanation for why the right answer works and why the distractors fail. The questions span Craft & Structure, Information & Ideas, Standard English Conventions, and Expression of Ideas.
How should I review questions I miss in this module?
Classify the error by skill, then write one short rule you can apply next time. For example: identify the relationship before choosing a transition, or verify that a quotation proves every part of a claim.
Which questions use a figure or table?
Question 13 uses a graph; the original figure remains in the official College Board PDF linked above. Question 15 uses a simple data table, reproduced here as text so you can compare every value directly.
Is Module 2 different from Module 1?
Yes in difficulty routing, not in skill categories. Module 2 is stage-adaptive, meaning your Module 1 performance determines which difficulty band you receive. Both modules use the same four Reading & Writing domains.
How much time is available for Reading & Writing Module 2?
Students have 32 minutes for 33 questions. Keep moving: if a question has not yielded a clear answer after roughly 60–75 seconds, mark it, make your best choice, and return if time remains.
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